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Exam Code: JN0-692
Exam Name: Juniper (Service Provider Routing and Switching Support, Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 171 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-12

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NO.1 You have applied a customized EXP rewrite rule on router R1 on the egress of the interface
connecting to router R2. You want to verify if it is working properly. Which two methods would you
use to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. Apply a rewrite rule on the ingress of R2 for packets coming in from R1 and count those packets
for the new EXP values with a firewall filter as they leave R2.
B. Use the traceroute utility.
C. Use an output filter on R1 that matches and counts on various EXP values on packets going to R2.
D. Use an input firewall filter on R2 that matches and counts on various EXP values on packets
coming from R1.
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 You have recently added LDP-signaled VPLS to your network. The VPLS connections are
established and you have been asked to verify that the forwarding plane is working properly. Which
three commands would you use? (Choose three.)
A. ping mpls Idp <fec>
B. show vpls connections
C. traceroute mpls Idp <fec>
D. show vpls mac-table
E. show Idp statistics
Answer: A,C,D

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10. R1 and R2 are IS-IS Level 1 routers, but are not forming an adjacency.
Which two reasons would account for this happening? (Choose two.)
A. The remote router is configured for both IPv4 and IPv6.
B. The remote router does not have family iso enabled on its interface,
C. The remote router does not have family clns enabled on its interface.
D. The remote router is not configured to participate in the same Level 1 area
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 You are asked to retain several routes from an external BGP neighbor in the routing table on
your local router, but you are not allowed to forward traffic to these destinations. You have
configured a forwarding table firewall filter to block these routes, and applied it under the (edit
forwarding-options] hierarchy, but the routes are still showing up in the forwarding table. What is
required to achieve this task?
A. Configure an EBGP import policy on your local router to block the routes.
B. Have the EBGP neighbor configure an export policy to block the routes.
C. Configure an export policy for the forwarding table to block the routes.
D. Use the no-install configuration statement within the EBGP neighbor group on your local router.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your OSPF network includes an NSSA. Which LSA type is injected into the NSSA by the ASBR?
A. Type 3
B. Type 5
C. Type 7
D. Type 9
Answer: C

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NO.5 Your currently configured regular expression does not match the AS path shown below:
2135.55 55 55 55 3796
Which three regular expressions would match this path? (Choose three.)
A. "."2135"
B. "2135.*"
C. "* 55(1, 3) *"
D. "2135 55(5) 3796"
E. "2135 55(1, 2) 3796"
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.6 An OSPF neighbor between routers R1 and R2 is stuck in loading state on R2. What are two
causes? (Choose two.)
A. OSPF is not enabled on the interfaces.
B. A firewall filter is blocking OSPF hellos on both sides.
C. The R1 router has received a corrupted link-state request packet.
D. The interface MTU is mismatched between the routers.
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 You recently added your autonomous system to an existing BGP confederation. You notice that
a route that had a local preference of 100 now has a local preference of 50. Which statement
explains the change?
A. BGP path attributes such as next hop, local preference, and MED are normally restricted to a
single AS but are allowed to propagate throughout the confederation's AS members.
B. The confederation has sub-ASs that require all IBGP routes to have a local preference of 50 or
below.
C. When your Junos devices joined the confederation, they lost IBGP connectivity to the route in
question; the local preference reverted to 50 once the BGP peering established.
D. The route is being shared through an EBGP peer, and the confederation is propagating the local
preference from the peer.
Answer: A

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NO.8 One of your router's OSPF adjacencies is down.
What are three reasons for this adjacency state change? (Choose Three)
A. A filter has just been configured on one of the OSPF routers.
B. The OSPF hello value is the same on both routers.
C. The controlling BFD session state has gone down.
D. The authentication key on both routers matches.
E. One of the physical interfaces has gone down.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.9 You have recently implemented a new Layer 2 VPN and it is not establishing. The show I2vpn
connections command displays an out-of-range state.
What is causing this problem?
A. The local site ID value is too high for the label block.
B. The VRF target community values do not match between sites.
C. The VRF route distinguisher values do not match between sites.
D. The local site ID is not defined.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: JN0-311
Exam Name: Juniper (WX, Associate(JNCIA-WX))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 Which statement is true about compression subnets?
A. Compression subnets are turned on by default.
B. Compression subnets advertise remote routes.
C. Compression subnets are usually LAN-side subnets.
D. Compression subnets are usually WAN-side subnets.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three statistics does the Executive report summarize? (Choose three.)
A. latency and loss
B. compression results
C. traffic (by application)
D. CRC and alignment errors
E. user access (by username)
Answer: ABC

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NO.3 What is NSC's functionality?
A. Web caching
B. sequence caching
C. memory-based compression
D. next-generation compression
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which two environments would take advantage of TCP Acceleration (AFP)? (Choose two.)
A. satellite networks
B. low-latency networks
C. long-haul link with 95% compressibility.
D. long-haul link with 10% compressibility.
Answer:AC

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NO.5 Which two configurations are made using the QoS Setup Wizard? (Choose two.)
A. Assign applications to traffic classes.
B. Use ToS/DSCP values for traffic classes.
C. Exclude subnets from QoS management.
D. Select dedicated vs. over-subscribed circuits.
Answer:AD

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NO.6 Which two statements describe the criteria bandwidth detection uses to dynamically alter bandwidth
allocation? (Choose two.)
A. Throughput is raised as latency decreases.
B. Throughput is based on available bandwidth.
C. Throughput is lowered as latency decreases.
D. Latency is measured by SYNs returned for each metapacket.
Answer:AB

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NO.7 Which two secure remote access methods are available on the WX platforms? (Choose two.)
A. SSL
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. HTTP
Answer:AB

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NO.8 What are two ways to view the system log files on a WX device? (Choose two.)
A. Use the CLI and enter show log.
B. Use the CLI and enter show all.
C. Use the CLI and enter show logging.
D. In WebView, choose Admin > Tools > Display System Log.
Answer:AD

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NO.9 Which two patented or patent-pending compression and caching technologies are used for WX/WXC
devices? (Choose two.)
A. Network Sequence Caching (NSC)
B. Molecular Sequence Caching (MSC)
C. Network Sequence Reduction (NSR)
D. Molecular Sequence Reduction (MSR)
Answer:AD

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NO.10 Which three locations in WebView allow you to confirm that the endpoints are configured properly?
(Choose three.)
A. Monitor > Endpoints
B. Acceleration > Endpoints
C. Device Setup > Endpoints
D. Compression > Endpoints
E. Admin > Maintenance > Display Configuration
Answer:ADE

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Exam Code: JN0-130
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper networks Certified internet specialist.e(jncis-e))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 128 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 Which CLI command is used to set a Privileged Exec password of mypassword?
A. enable password 0 mypassword
B. enable password 3 mypassword
C. enable password 5 mypassword
D. enable password 10 mypassword
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which two BGP attributes are incorporated for loop prevention within an AS using a route reflection
configuration? (Choose two.)
A. AS Path
B. Next Hop
C. Cluster List
D. Originator ID
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which three statements about Label-Switched Paths (LSPs) are true? (Choose three.)
A. LSPs are bidirectional.
B. LSPs are unidirectional.
C. LSPs can be signaled by CAC.
D. LSPs can be configured explicitly.
E. LSPs can be configured dynamically.
Answer: BDE

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NO.4 In a Bridged 1483 network, which set of commands is used to configure an ATM subinterface?
A. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip address unnumbered loopback0
B. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
description Company-XYZ
encapsulation bridge1483
ip unnumbered loopback0
C. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip address unnumbered loopback0
D. interface atm 6/0.33
atm pvc 33 0 33 aal5snap
encapsulation bridge1483
description Company-XYZ
ip unnumbered loopback0
Answer: D

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NO.5 You would like to view all Fast Ethernet interfaces currently using VLAN tagging and the specific VLANs
each interface is using.
Which CLI command displays this information?
A. show fast interface
B. show vlan interface
C. show vlan subinterface
D. show fast interface vlan
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which CLI command displays the status of a PPP over Ethernet subinterface?
A. show pppoe interface
B. show ppp int state up
C. show ip interface brief
D. show pppoe subinterface
Answer: D

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NO.7 Is the IS-IS Designated Intermediate System (DIS) election process called Deterministic or Static and
why?
A. It is Static. If the priorities are equal for a new neighbor and the current DIS only.
B. It is Deterministic. If the well-known pseudonode and system ID is configured on the new neighbor only.
C. It is Deterministic. When a new router appears on a multi-access network with a higher priority value, it
is elected as the DIS.
D. It is Static. When a new intermediate system powers up on a multi-access network, even if it has a
higher priority, it may become a backup DIS.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which CLI command displays the VRFs that are operational within each virtual router?
A. show vir
B. show ip vrf
C. show vrf vir
D. show mpls vrf
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which message type is used to initiate an RSVP-TE label switched path?
A. path
B. resv
C. setup
D. session
Answer: A

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NO.10 Why would you make a non-backbone area a stub or not-so-stubby area?
A. to aggregate routes learned from the ABR
B. to lower the cost of routes advertised by the ABR
C. to connect a non-contiguous area to the backbone
D. to decrease the size of the link-state database in that area
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which configuration command places interfaces whose IP addresses are between 192.168.0.0 and
192.168.255.255 into OSPF area 0?
A. network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 0.0.0.0
B. network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0.0.0.0
C. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
D. area 0.0.0.0 network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two types of routes may be advertised via EBGP? (Choose two.)
A. Routes that do not originate in the local AS and are learned by OSPF.
B. Routes that originate on the local router and are advertised into OSPF.
C. Routes that are transiting the local router and are BGP learned routes.
D. Routes that originate on the local router and are injected using a route map.
Answer: CD

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NO.13 Which CLI command disconnects all subscribers on an ATM PVC?
A. clear port 4/3.99
B. logout port 4/3.99
C. clear subscriber port 4/3.99
D. logout subscriber port 4/3.99
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two services protect the ERX Edge Router from unauthorized CLI logins?
A. IPSec
B. SecureID
C. local passwords
D. default IP policy
E. RADIUS authentication
Answer: CE

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16. Your ERX Edge Router is constantly going to a boot## prompt.
What is the most likely cause for this condition?
A. bad SRP
B. low voltage
C. bad mid-plane
D. corrupted flash
Answer: D

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17. Which sequence of events describes the order used to restore normal router operation after
experiencing a corrupted flash?
A. initialize flash, reload, copy new system files from FTP server
B. reload, copy new system files from FTP server, initialize flash
C. initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server, reload
D. reload, initialize flash, copy new system files from FTP server
Answer: C

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18. You are trying to recover from a corrupted flash.
Which configuration command configures an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 on the SRP management
interface when the ERX1400 router is at the boot## prompt?
A. ip address 192.168.1.1/24
B. ip address 192.168.1.1 subnetmask 24
C. ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
D. ip address 192.168.1.1 mask 255.255.255.0
Answer: C

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19. What describes the functionality of NTP when using multiple virtual routers?
A. All virtual routers can act as NTP clients and servers.
B. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client and a server.
C. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP server but all can be clients.
D. Only one virtual router can act as an NTP client but all can be servers.
Answer: D

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20. Which configuration command is used to make the ERX Edge Router an NTP server?
A. set ntp-server
B. set ntp server
C. ntp-server enable
D. ntp server enable
Answer: D

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21. Which configuration command allows a virtual router to receive updates from a configured NTP
source?
A. ntp enable
B. enable ntp
C. set ntp-client
D. enable ntp-client
Answer: A

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22. Which configuration command is used to send debug level events to the console in real time?
A. log here severity debug
B. log destination console severity debug
C. log severity debug destination console
D. log realtime destination console severity debug
Answer: B

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23. Which command initiates a packet trace for all PPP packets on interface atm 6/1.33 ?
A. log filter debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
B. log severity debug pppPacket atm 6/1.33
C. log filter debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
D. log severity debug category pppPacket atm 6/1.33
Answer: B

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24. Log messages are appearing very quickly on the console of your ERX Edge Router.
Which Privileged Exec command disables real-time console logging?
A. no log here
B. no log console
C. destination console severity 7
D. destination console logging off
Answer: A

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25. Which two configuration commands are required to direct debug level console logging to your current
ERX Edge Router Telnet session? (Choose two.)
A. log here
B. log telnet here
C. log destination console severity 7
D. log destination telnet severity debug
Answer: AC

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26. A log filter of log severity DEBUG pppPacket ATM 4/3.66 is configured within the category of
pppPacket.
Which configuration command removes this specific log filter?
A. no log severity pppPacket
B. no log severity debug pppPacket
C. no log severity pppPacket atm 4/3.66
D. no log severity debug pppPacket 4/3.66
Answer: C

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27. Which configuration command removes all log filters currently configured on the ERX Edge Router?
A. no log here
B. no log fields
C. no log filters
D. no log severity
Answer: C

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28. Which three statements describe macros on the ERX Edge Router? (Choose three.)
A. They prompt users for input.
B. They cannot prompt users for input.
C. They can be created on the router itself.
D. They are an embedded programming language.
E. They can be created on the user's workstation.
Answer: ADE

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29. Which command is used to execute a macro called setup.mac ?
A. macro setup
B. macro setup.mac
C. run macro setup
D. run macro setup.mac
Answer: B

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30. Which control expression must be the last line in all macros?
A. <# end #>
B. <# finish #>
C. <# endtmpl #>
D. <# terminate #>
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which three statements are true regarding the DHCP Internal Server? (Choose three.)
A. Can be in remote-access mode.
B. Can be in equal-access mode.
C. Can be in standalone mode.
D. Standalone mode is the default.
E. Equal-access mode is the default.
Answer: BCE

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Exam Code: JN0-522
Exam Name: Juniper (FXV,Associate (JNCIA-FWV))
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Total Q&A: 160 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 What is the purpose of the "Permitted IP" address on a ScreenOS device?
A.It defines a list of addresses that are trusted to perform management on the ScreenOS device.
B.It is used in policy rules to determine which user traffic is allowed through the ScreenOS device.
C.It defines which range of addresses that can access devices connected to the ScreenOS device.
D.It is the address that an external device uses to gain management access to a ScreenOS device.
Answer:A

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NO.2 You want to minimize the number of IP addresses, subnets, and policies in use. How should you
configure your tunnel interface?
A.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 32 bit subnet mask.
B.Configure the tunnel interface with an IP address with a 30 bit subnet mask.
C.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered and place the interface in the same zone as the
designated interface.
D.Configure the tunnel interface as unnumbered, but place the tunnel interface in a different zone than the
designated interface.
Answer:C

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NO.3 What are two benefits of configuring a ScreenOS device in transparent mode? (Choose two.)
A.There is no need to reconfigure the IP addresses of routers or protected servers.
B.There is no need to create MIPs or VIPs for incoming traffic to reach protected servers.
C.Policies are easier to create since you do not have to include source and destination IP addresses.
D.The product can support more VPNs and obtain greater throughput because there is less overhead to
manage.
Answer:A B

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NO.4 You enter the following command: set int e0/8 mip 1.1.8.32 host 10.1.10.32 netmask 255.255.255.255
How many MIP address translations have you just configured?
A.1
B.8
C.128
D.256
Answer:A

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which routing command would allow host A to communicate with
host C? (Note: Assume a route from the SSG 20 to host A's subnet already exists.)
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 int e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
B.set route 1.1.70.0 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
C.configure route 1.1.70.0/24 gateway 177.11.56.254 int e0/3
D.set route 1.1.70.0/24 interface e0/3 gateway 177.11.56.254
Answer:D

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NO.6 Which ScreenOS CLI command is required to enable a policy during specified times, days, or dates?
A.set time
B.set clock
C.set calendar
D.set scheduler
Answer:D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, which two forms of address translation would have generated
the output shown? (Choose two.)
A.MIP
B.NAT-src with no DIP
C.Interface-based translation
D.NAT-src with a DIP, fixed-port disabled
Answer:B C

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NO.8 Your VPN tunnel does not pass traffic. You run the get ike cookie command and discover that there is no
cookie. Which two should be verified? (Choose two.)
A.routes
B.Phase 1 configuration options
C.Phase 2 configuration options
D.selected quick mode encryption algorithms
Answer:A B

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NO.9 Click the Exhibit button. Traffic from the Internet to the partner servers must use a VIP. In the exhibit,
what is true about the configuration of this feature?
A.You cannot use a VIP in this environment.
B.The VIP can be configured on the e0/4 interface.
C.The VIP can be configured in the Corporate or Internet zone using a different subnet than the physical
interface.
D.The VIP will work only if the destination ports in the incoming packet headers are mapped to the same
ports in the Corporate zone.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, if host A initiates a Web browsing session with host D, and the
E0/1 interface of the SSG 20 is in NAT mode, what will be the source address of the packet arriving at
host D?
A.10.1.1.1
B.10.1.10.5
C.143.45.56.1
D.143.45.56.254
Answer:C

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NO.11 What is the purpose of the VLAN1 interface?
A.It provides policy-based NAT for 802.1Q VLANs.
B.It provides an interface that can be used with 802.1Q VLANs in transparent mode.
C.It provides the ScreenOS device with a routable IP address while operating in route mode.
D.It provides an interface that can be used to remotely manage the ScreenOS device while operating in
transparent mode.
Answer:D

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NO.12 Which statement is correct about tunnel interfaces?
A.They can have overlapping IP addresses.
B.They need to be configured in the zone where the protected resources reside.
C.They can be unnumbered and used in policy-based translations if the interface is in route mode.
D.They can be unnumbered from any interface residing on the same virtual router as the protected
resources.
Answer:D

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NO.13 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be used to view traffic logs?
A.get traffic
B.get log policy
C.get policy log
D.get log traffic
Answer:D

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NO.14 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct command to configure a default route on the
SSG 20?
A.set route 0.0.0.0/0 vrouter untrust
B.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 gateway 143.45.56.254
C.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface e0/4 next-hop 143.45.56.254
D.set route 0.0.0.0/0 interface 143.45.56.1 gate 143.45.56.254
Answer:B

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NO.15 Which command can you use to view the log of IKE negotiations and results?
A.get event type 536
B.get ike cookie
C.get sa active
D.debug ike basic
Answer:A

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NO.16 Assuming factory default settings, which statement describes the minimum requirements for WebUI
management access to the SSG 5?
A.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet to any interface, open a browser and access
192.168.1.1.
B.Terminate the bootup sequence from the console device, open a browser on the console device and
access 192.168.1.1.
C.Connect a PC addressed on the 192.168.1.0 subnet, to the highest numbered interface and open a
browser and access 192.168.1.1.
D.Using the CLI, define an IP address on a physical interface, connect a PC to the interface and open a
browser to the interface address.
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which ScreenOS CLI command would be useful for troubleshooting a policy deny?
A.get flow debug
B.debug flow basic
C.exec flow analysis
D.debug session basic
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which ScreenOS CLI policy statement keyword would enable a policy only during specified times, days,
and/or dates?
A.at
B.calendar
C.schedule
D.scheduler
Answer:C

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button. In the exhibit, what is the correct address book entry for host C?
A.set address C 1.1.70.250/32
B.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250
C.set address Partner 1.1.70.250/32
D.set address Partner C 1.1.70.250/32
Answer:D

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NO.20 What needs to be configured in Phase 2 of a route-based VPN, that does not need to be configured in a
policy-based VPN?
A.proxy-id
B.tunnel-binding
C.transport mode
D.custom proposals
Answer:B

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Exam Code: JN0-360
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-SP))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 252 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 For a network running single-area OSPF, how would you decrease the size of the link-state
database (LSDB)?
A. Implement RIP as an overlay protocol on all devices.
B. Add more devices to the OSPF network to help with LSDB processing.
C. Reduce the frequency of hello timers throughout the network.
D. Implement OSPF areas.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Junos platform supports provider bridging?
A. T Series devices
B. SRX Series devices
C. MX Series devices
D. MAG Series devices
Answer: D

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NO.3 In which environment would you run BGP?
A. a company spread across multiple floors of a building
B. a company with a single office
C. a home network
D. the public Internet
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two statements are true about MPLS VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. With Layer 3 VPNs, the provider's routers participate in the customer's Layer 3 routing.
B. MPLS VPNs are designed to run over private networks rather than the public Internet.
C. With Layer 2 VPNs, the provider does not participate in the routing of the customer's private IP
traffic.
D. MPLS VPN tunnels are always encrypted.
Answer: B,D

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NO.5 Which label operation is performed by an MPLS transit router?
A. inject
B. pop
C. push
D. swap
Answer: A

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NO.6 What are Martian addresses on a Junos device?
A. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with MPLS VPNs.
B. IP addresses that are never installed in the routing table.
C. IP addresses that are reserved for use only with GRE tunnels.
D. IP addresses specifically used for out-of-band management.
Answer: A

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7. Which statement correctly describes the difference between a generated and an aggregate
route?
A. An aggregate route can be a supernet whereas generated routes are classful.
B. A generated route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
C. An aggregate route has a forwarding next hop that is inherited from a contributing route.
D. Only aggregate routes can be re-advertised through BGP using a policy.
Answer: B

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8. Which statement is true regarding the default master routing instance?
A. All IPv4 routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
B. Interface routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
C. Routes in the master routing instance are not shared with user-defined routing instances.
D. All routes in the master routing instance are shared with user-defined routing instances.
Answer: C

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9. Which routing table contains the route information for the user-defined routing instance
called Candidate1?
A. inet.Candidate1.0
B. Candidate1.inet.0
C. inet.0
D. Candidate1-inet.0
Answer: B

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10. Which two routing-instance types are used for non-VPN-related applications? (Choose two.)
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. vpls
Answer: A,C

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Exam Code: JN0-380
Exam Name: Juniper (Wireless LAN, Specialist (JNCIS-WLAN))
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Total Q&A: 86 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-03

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NO.1 Which Juniper Networks WLA model supports spectrum analysis?
A. WLA371
B. WLA422
C. WLA532
D. WLA632
Answer: C

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NO.2 A user repeatedly calls in to the Help desk complaining about their wireless connection.
Which actions would test the user's wireless connectivity from RingMaster?
A. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the Location History option to find out if the client is near a functioning access point.
B. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
run the RF ping test to determine RSSI and retry counts to verify the RF environment being
reported by the AP to which the client is connected.
C. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
choose to terminate the client from the wireless network so they can reestablish a new session.
D. Locate the client in the client tools screen using the Find Clients tab. Once the client is located,
add the client to the Watched Client list to gather additional data on the clients signal strength and
data throughput.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You have installed your AP in the proper location on your network. The AP needs to obtain
configuration information from a controller before it can support wireless clients.
What are three methods that an AP uses to do this? (Choose three.)
A. ICMP ping
B. Keepalive packets
C. DNS Lookup
D. L2 Broadcast
E. DHCP Option 43
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.4 What is the hardware requirement for a RingMaster client?
A. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
B. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 2GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
C. Intel/AMD x86-compatible single core processor, 2.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 1024 MB HD space
D. Intel/AMD x86-compatible dual core processor, 1.0Ghz, 1GB RAM, 512 MB HD space
Answer: A

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6. During the installation of RingMaster, you receive the installation error: "HTTPS Server port is
already in use. Please select another port."
What should you do to resolve this issue?
A. Change the HTTPS Server port number to 443.
B. Change the HTTPS Server port number so that it does not conflict with other applications.
C. Restart the installation process so that RingMaster can resolve the issue.
D. Change the SNMP Trap Receiver port to 162.
Answer: B

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7. You are asked to troubleshoot a communication problem between a WLC and a RADIUS server.
You verified that the RADIUS server is reachable from the WLC.
Which WLC CLI command would be used for troubleshooting RADIUS connectivity?
A. rfping
B. show authentication
C. ping
D. radping
Answer: D

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8. In an auditorium, you have 200 wireless clients connecting to the wireless network. You want
to
configure RF load balancing to distribute client sessions across multiple APs in the area.
Which two parameters are configurable to achieve this? (Choose two.)
A. setting strictness
B. configuring auto-tune
C. defining transmit rates
D. setting band preference
Answer: A,D

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9. You want to provide secure wireless services to one set of clients on your network and allow
open
access services to your guest clients. You need to configure service profiles for each type of
access to the network.
Which three methods are used to accomplish this? (Choose three.)
A. Configure one service per WLA.
B. Configure an encryption type.
C. Configure IP addresses.
D. Configure SSIDs.
E. Configure VLANs.
Answer: B,D,E

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10. Multiple users are complaining that their wireless connections are not working.
Which RingMaster screen would the administrator use for troubleshooting?
A. Alarms
B. Clients
C. Monitor
D. Verification
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the maximum allowed configurable SSIDs per radio?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64
Answer: C

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Exam Code: JN0-562
Exam Name: Juniper (Certified Internet Associate (JNCIA-SSL) 562 Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 Which three authentication servers are included with a baseline license? (Choose three.)
A. NIS
B. ACE
C. SAML
D. LDAP
E. SiteMinder
Answer: ABD

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NO.2 You are using RADIUS as your authorization server. Other than username, which two attributes are
available for creating role mapping rules? (Choose two.)
A. Certificate
B. User Attribute
C. RSA Attributes
D. Group Membership
Answer: AB

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NO.3 What is Cache Cleaner used for?
A. to prevent users from signing in from insecure machines
B. to remove content downloaded during the IVE session
C. to remove Web content cached by the IVE on behalf of the user
D. to determine which files should be cached between remote access sessions
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which User Role session option provides you with the capability to cache basic authentication
information so users are not challenged repeatedly for the same credentials?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are two reasons for using Network Connect? (Choose two.)
A. When the ability to disable split tunneling is required.
B. When the client will need to redirect traffic based on process name.
C. When the client will use applications with server-initiated connections.
D. When the client will not have administrator privileges on their machines.
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which resource example should you use to define resource access to a UNIX file share?
A. server/user
B. \\server\share
C. tcp://host:443
D. tcp://host:137/users
Answer: A

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NO.7 You want to configure Network Connect to allow users to connect through a tunnel, connect to hosts on
the same subnet as their local adapter, and shut down any attempt to extend the network boundaries.
How do you proceed?
A. Enable split tunneling.
B. Disable split tunneling.
C. Enable split tunneling with route change monitor.
D. Allow access to local subnet with route change monitor.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which role-based session option would an administrator configure to allow a user to connect from
different source IP addresses within the same user session?
A. roaming session
B. persistent session
C. persistent password caching
D. browser request follow-through
Answer: A

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NO.9 You create a set of role mapping rules. You select "Merge settings for all assigned roles." The second
role mapping rule has the "Stop processing rules when this rule matches" option selected. A user logs in
that matches the first three rules. What happens?
A. This is not a valid combination. The system displays an error message and does not update the
configuration.
B. The merge settings override the stop processing option. The user matches all three roles and merging
follows the standard merging criteria.
C. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The merge option only
merges the roles of the first two rules following the IVE's built-in permissive merging rules.
D. The Stop rule prevents any more rule matching after checking the second rule. The user now just
matches the second rule. The merge option is overridden and the user is given only the privileges defined
by the second role.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two statements about SSL VPNs are true? (Choose two.)
A. SSL VPNs provide better security than IPSEC.
B. SSL VPNs provide a dedicated, point to point connection.
C. SSL VPNs provide high performance for individual connections.
D. SSL VPNs use well-known technologies for secure individual connections.
Answer: CD

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NO.11 Which statement accurately describes Resource Profiles?
A. Resource Profiles are a collection of resources and ACLs.
B. Resource Profiles are where ACLs are setup for resources.
C. Resource Profiles are a collection of resources and their discriptions.
D. Resource Profiles are where the resource, role, and ACL are in one location.
Answer: D

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NO.12 When using the J-SAM, where on a client machine would you look to verify that the loopback
addresses are assigned correctly?
A. HOSTS file
B. ARP cache
C. LMHOSTS file
D. local route table
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the minimum information that must be configured by an administrator to create a resource
policy? (Choose two.)
A. resource
B. username
C. policy name
D. session timeout
Answer: AC

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NO.14 Which two Web Resource Policy features provide you with the capability to configure the IVE to work
with corporate Proxy Servers? (Choose two.)
A. Web Proxy Policies
B. Web Proxy Servers
C. Web Cache Policies
D. Web Passthrough Proxy
Answer: AB

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NO.15 What are two possible reasons for W-SAM not starting on the client? (Choose two.)
A. Java is disabled in the Sign-in policy.
B. ActiveX autoinstall is disabled in the role.
C. A popup blocker is installed on the client machine.
D. The user does not have administrator privileges on the machine.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 Resource Profiles support creating policies for which two technologies? (Choose two.)
A. secure meeting
B. network connect
C. terminal services
D. Web applications
Answer: CD

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NO.17 What does a sign-in policy map users to when browsing a specified URL?
A. A list of possible user roles.
B. Specific resources as stated in resource policies.
C. The URL presents one or more authentication realms to the user for authentication.
D. The login is passed to an authentication server for verification, and an authorization server for user
attribute information.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two Terminal Services clients can be delivered automatically from the IVE to users? (Choose
two.)
A. Citrix ICA
B. Tera Term
C. SecureCRT
D. Windows Terminal Service
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Where is the IVE typically deployed in the network?
A. behind the Internet firewall
B. internally with all clients directly cabled to the IVE
C. both interfaces on the outside of the Internet firewall
D. parallel to the Internet firewall with one interface on the outside and one on the inside
Answer: A

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NO.20 What are two benefits of using SSL? (Choose two.)
A. SSL is supported in all Web browsers.
B. SSL usually requires no client-side configuration.
C. The SSL client is smaller than most IPSec clients, with half the options to configure than that of an
IPSec client.
D. SSL outperforms IPSec on every level because it operates at the network layer rather than the
application layer.
Answer: AB

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Exam Code: JN0-531
Exam Name: Juniper (FWV, Specailist(JNCIS-FWV))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29

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NO.1 What do you need to change in your VPN configuration to use certificates for authentication?
A. Replace the preshared key with the certificate name.
B. Select PFS in Phase 2, then select the certificate to be used.
C. Use a custom set of Phase 1 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
D. Use a custom set of Phase 2 proposals, all beginning with rsa-.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which CLI command identifies the multicast sources visible to your ScreenOS device?
A. get route pim
B. get igmp source all
C. exec pim interface all query
D. get vrouter trust-vr protocol pim
Answer: D

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NO.3 You create a policy-based VPN, and select an address group for the source address.
What will be the source component of the proxy-id seen by the remote security gateway?
A. the default 0.0.0.0/0
B. the last member of the address group
C. the first member of the address group
D. the subnet that contains all addresses in the address group
Answer: A

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NO.4 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the route-based VPN on the SSG 5 needs to configured to allow access only from your PC
to Server G. The SSG 550 is configured with a policy-based VPN from Server G to your PC's host
address.
Assume the gateways are static.
Which proxy-id must be configured?
A. Local: 10.0.0.5/24Remote: 20.0.0.5/24
B. Local: 10.0.0.5/32Remote: 20.0.0.5/32
C. Local: 1.1.1.250/32Remote: 4.4.4.250/32
D. Local: 1.1.1.250/24Remote: 4.4.4.250/24
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your ScreenOS device has come under a SYN flood attack. In the logs, which severity level would you
search to see this event?
A. Alert
B. Critical
C. Warning
D. Emergency
Answer: D

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NO.6 How many tunnels would need to be created to build a full mesh between 10 VPN devices?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 45
D. 100
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have implemented a hub and spoke VPN. On the hub, there are two tunnel interfaces, one to
each spoke. Both tunnel interfaces are in the same zone.
Which two configuration options will control traffic between the spokes? (Choose two.)
A. Configure the common zone to block inter-zone traffic.
B. Configure the common zone to block intra-zone traffic.
C. Configure each tunnel interface to block intra-zone traffic.
D. Configure one of the tunnel interfaces in a different zone a set policies.
Answer: BD

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NO.8 To which three ScreenOS components can a policy-based routing policy be bound? (Choose three.)
A. zone
B. policy
C. interface
D. virtual router
E. virtual system
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 A VPN tunnel that uses a CA certificate has failed Phase 1 negotiations. The peer's certificate has
been rejected.
What would be causing this problem?
A. The CA certificate has been revoked.
B. One of the peering devices are not synced with the NTP server.
C. The device certificates were generated before the CRL was downloaded thus making them invalid.
D. The CRL has been downloaded, but the certificates have a CDP extension thus making them invalid.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which item in a virtual system is shared by default?
A. trust zone in the trust-vr
B. trust zone in the untrust-vr
C. untrust zone in the trust-vr
D. untrust zone in the untrust-vr
Answer: C

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NO.11 What will happen if you type the command unset protocol vrouter trust-vr protocol ospf?
A. OSPF stops running, but the OSPF configuration is left intact.
B. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter only.
C. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from all interfaces in the vrouter.
D. All OSPF configuration parameters are removed from the vrouter and from all interfaces in the vrouter.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the hub and spoke VPN uses route-based VPNs.
What is the minimum number of policy rules required to establish full, bi-directional communications
between all locations?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which two item pairs are exchanged during Phase 2 negotiations? (Choose two.)
A. proxy-id, SA proposal list
B. IKE cookie, SA proposal list
C. hash [ID + Key], DH key exchange
D. SA proposal list, optional DH key exchange
Answer: AD

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NO.14 What must be enabled to protect Phase 2 key exchanges?
A. Phase 1 PFS
B. Phase 2 SHA
C. Phase 2 3-DES
D. Phase 2 DH key exchange
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which command will show address translation for sessions that have ended?
A. snoop
B. get session
C. get log traffic
D. get dbuf stream
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which command is used to verify that IGMP is running correctly?
A. get route igmp
B. get igmp query
C. set igmp query interface e0/1
D. exec igmp interface e0/1 query
Answer: D

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NO.17 During main mode negations a failure has occurred while using IKE certificates.
Which message pair would you review to troubleshoot this failure?
A. messages 1 & 2
B. messages 2 & 3
C. messages 3 & 4
D. messages 5 & 6
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which two statements regarding NHTB are correct? (Choose two.)
A. If the spoke device is not a ScreenOS device, manual configuration of NHTB is required on the hub.
B. If the spoke device is not a ScreenOS device, manual configuration of NHTB is required on the spoke.
C. When configuring routing on a spoke device with one tunnel interface the route to the tunnel interface
does not require a routing gateway address.
D. When configuring routing on a hub device with one tunnel interface terminating multiple VPN spokes,
the route to the tunnel interface does not require a routing gateway address.
Answer: AC

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NO.19 What should you configure to insure an HA cable failure does not result in both devices attempting to
become master?
A. failover count
B. secondary path
C. monitor threshold
D. heartbeat threshold
Answer: B

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NO.20 A VPN tunnel that uses a CA certificate will not become active.
What would be causing this problem?
A. The CA certificate has been revoked.
B. The devices are not synced with the NTP server.
C. The device certificates were generated before the CRL was downloaded thus making them invalid.
D. The CRL has been downloaded, but the certificates have a CDP extension thus making them invalid.
Answer: B

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NO.21 You have created a VPN to a dynamic peer.
Which two configured parameters must match? (Choose two.)
A. static side peer-id
B. dynamic side local-id
C. static side IP address
D. dynamic side IP address
Answer: AB

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NO.22 Which three statements are true regarding IKE Phase 1? (Choose three.)
A. Placing the SA proposal list in message 1 is an option.
B. The digital certificate is used to decrypt the session key.
C. The DH key exchange is used to validate the session key.
D. The DH key exchange and digital certificates are both optional.
E. The proxy-id is used to determine which SA is referenced for the VPN.
Answer: ABC

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NO.23 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, what is the source IP address of the multicast traffic?
A. 236.1.1.1
B. 10.10.10.1
C. 20.20.20.10
D. 20.20.20.200
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which two statements are correct regarding NHTB? (Choose two.)
A. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get nhtb.
B. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface <tunnel interface>.
C. The NHTB table can be viewed with the command get interface <physical interface>.
D. NHTB is enabled automatically when multiple VPNs are bound to a single tunnel interface.
Answer: BD

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NO.25 Which three items do you need to download and install on your ScreenOS device for IKE gateways to
be able to use digital certificates without OCSP? (Choose three.)
A. the CRL list
B. the SCEP list
C. a local certificate
D. the CA public key certificate
E. the CA private key certificate
Answer: ACD

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NO.26 You have configured the following on your device.
The VPN is not working properly. What is the problem?
A. The policy needs to have the action tunnel.
B. The VPN needs to be bound to the tunnel interface.
C. The tunnel interface needs to be placed in the trust zone.
D. The tunnel interface needs to be associated with the interface in the untrust zone.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Click the Exhibit button.
In the exhibit, the hub and spoke VPN uses route-based VPNs and has intra-zone blocking enabled on
the Evil zone.
What is the minimum number of policy rules required to establish full, bi-directional communications
between all locations?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
Answer: D

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NO.28 What must be configured differently for a route-based VPN and a policy-based VPN?
A. proxy-id
B. proposals
C. remote gateway type
D. binding the tunnel interface
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which ScreenOS CLI command is necessary for configuring IGMP on interface ethernet0/1?
A. set igmp interface ethernet0/1
B. set multicast interface ethernet0/1
C. set interface ethernet0/1 igmp router
D. set igmp interface ethernet0/1 enable
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which two statements are true regarding the use of dialup VPNs? (Choose two.)
A. They are initiated only by the remote host PC.
B. They can only be connected to the trust zone on a ScreenOS device.
C. They are configured so that the first IKE message will always have the SA proposal list.
D. They can be used as an alternative to connect remote users when a ScreenOS device has reached the
maximum number of LAN-to-LAN tunnels.
Answer: AC

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