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Exam Code: 000-332
Exam Name: IBM (High Availability for AIX - Technical Support and Administration -v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 132 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When implementing PowerHA in a cross site LVM configuration, which logical volume option is
required.?
A. Serialize IO=yes
B. Mirror Write Consistency=on
C. Scheduling Policy=sequential
D. Allocation Policy=superstrict
Answer: D

IBM   000-332   000-332   000-332

NO.2 Consider the following PowerHA DLPAR configuration for a cluster, and LPAR profile on the HMC for a
standby node in that cluster: How should the standby node profile be reconfigured so that an application
runs with the minimum hardware resources?
A. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.1 and Maximum processing units = 0.6
B. Minimum and Desired processing units = 0.2 and Maximum processing units = 0.5
C. Minimum processing units = 0.6 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 1.5
D. Minimum processing units = 0.5 and both Desired and Maximum processing units = 0.9
Answer: D

IBM   000-332   000-332

NO.3 The service IPs VLAN is the only routable network in a 2-node HA cluster with multiple network
interfaces. What must done to enable administrative tasks to be performed remotely on the cluster
nodes?
A. Associate a permanent Service IP address for each HA node.
B. Configure the boot IP Address on the same VLAN as the service IP Address.
C. Configure a persistent IP Address for each node on the service IP network.
D. Create a route on the switch and translate the Service IP address to the boot IP address using NAT.
Answer: C

IBM   000-332   000-332

NO.4 Given the information from hacmp.out below, why is the cluster in config_too_long status?
A. The script /APP1/serv/scripts/shut_down does not exist.
B. The APP1 stop_server script exited with a non zero return code.
C. The application did not shut down correctly, which caused the rg_move operation to exceed the time
limit to complete.
D. The rg_move event is sleeping for anything between 360 seconds and 3600 hours until the
stop_server script is complete.
Answer: B

IBM practice test   000-332   000-332

NO.5 There is a two-node cluster with Node1 and Node2. An administrator changes filesystem size on Node1
by using the chfs command, and moves resource the group to Node2.
The administrator finds the change of filesystem size is recognized on Node2.
Why is the filesystem size change reflected on Node2?
A. The gsclvmd daemon automatically synchronizes filesystem changes.
B. The filesystem size change is recognized when filesystem is mounted on Node2.
C. A pre-event is defined to get_disk_vg_fs event to reflect filesystem size change.
D. The shared volume group is re-imported on Node2 by lazy update when moving the resource group.
Answer: A

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NO.6 When PowerHA SystemMirror 7.1 is installed on AIX 7.1, what RSCT component does Cluster Aware
AIX (CAA) replace?
A. Group Services
B. Resource Manager
C. Topology Services
D. Resource Monitoring and Control (RMC)
Answer: A

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NO.7 An administrator is planning to upgrade from HACMP 5.5 and AIX 5.3 to PowerHA 7 and AIX 7. After
migration installing AIX, what must be done first?
A. Install CAAfileset.
B. Migrate to PowerHA 7.
C. Run the clmigcheck program.
D. Create shared VG for use by CAA.
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator is using PowerHA 7 to define a new cluster using SMIT option "Setup a Cluster, Nodes
and Networks" and encountered the following error message:
What is the root cause of the problem?
A. The nodes were not defined in the DNS
B. The /etc/cluster/rhosts are not populated correctly
C. The CAA repository disk is not accessible on all nodes
D. The CAA cluster was not defined before defining the PowerHA Cluster
Answer: B

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NO.9 A 2-node cluster has three multi-node disk heartbeat (MNDHB) networks and data volume groups on
separate disks. Application resource groups are online on Node1. What happens if Node1 loses access to
two of the three MNDHB disks?
A. Node1 halts
B. Application resource groups move to Node2
C. Application resource groups remain on Node1
D. Application resource groups on Node1 go offline
Answer: B

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NO.10 What cluster service settings can be defined in SMIT on one node of a cluster and automatically
updated on all other nodes?
A. BROADCAST message at startup
B. Start HACMP at system restart
C. Verify Cluster Prior to Startup
D. Startup Cluster Information Daemon
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-240
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling Configurator V9.1, Deployment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When naming properties, a modeler avoids using names that start with an "_" (underscore). The
modeler is correct to do this, because names that start with an "_" (underscore) are which type of
properties?
A. UI Properties
B. UEV Properties
C. System Properties
D. Rule Trace Properties
Answer: C

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NO.2 A Model has property values that change frequently, and these changes are communicated by an
external vendor. The modeler needs to make these changes as required. What is the MOST efficient way
of updating the Model with these frequent changes?
A. Make the changes in the database table.
B. Make the changes using the Visual Modeler.
C. Export the current Model and make changes in the Model XML. Import the changed Model.
D. Create a common Worksheet and maintain it externally in a Comma Separated Value (CSV) file.
Upload it with the new property values.
Answer: D

IBM practice test   000-240 questions   000-240

NO.3 A modeler is working on a rule to determine if the customer's location is one of the 10 possible locations
where a discounted offer can be given. What type of property SHOULD be used for storing all 10 of the
locations in one property.?
A. List property
B. String property
C. Location property
D. String Array property
Answer: A

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NO.4 A Model is developed per the following image:
To ensure consistency and control of priorities, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. "Property, D" will always be equal to 5.
B. The formula cannot be attached to property as depicted in the image.
C. To ensure that the value of "Property, D" is 7 after Model execution, change the priority of formula firing
so that the formula for deriving "Property, C" is fired before the formula for "Property, D".
D. To ensure that the value of "Property, C" is calculated before the value of "Property, D", replace the
formula with two rules. Rule1 calculates "Property, C" and Rule2 calculates "Property, D". Set the priority
for Rule1 is set to 40, and the priority of Rule2 to 50.
Answer: D

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NO.5 To represent an entertainment collection, a modeler creates a Model Group with Models for books,
songs, movies. etc. Option Classes in each Model represent different genres and the Option Items are the
individual works of art (specific songs, movies, books, etc.). Given that the term "'artists" is applicable to
songs and movies but not to books, where should a property denoting "artists" be defined and attached?
A. Property is defined at the Model Group and attached at the Models.
B. Property is defined at the Models and attached at the Option Class.
C. Property is defined at the Model Group and attached at the Option Items.
D. Property is defined at the Option Class and attached at the Option Items.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Review the following Model:
The callouts (i.e. "R1", "R2", "R3, R4" and "R5") denote the rules assigned at the different levels. For the
rules assigned to the same node, assume that the rules are listed in the increasing order of priority value.
What is the sequence in which the rules will be evaluated?
A. R1, R2, R3, R4, R5
B. R1, R2, R4, R3, R5
C. R1, R2, R5, R4, R3
D. R3, R4, R2, R5, R1
Answer: D

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NO.7 A modeler needs to create a property to represent the quantity of televisions in a home where the value
needs to be used in a calculation. What type of property should be created?
A. List property
B. String property
C. Integer property
D. Number property
Answer: D

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NO.8 A modeler creates a Model for a desktop with multiple layers of Option Classes. To keep the price of the
desktop low, the modeler decided on a maximum price for each group of components and marked it at the
appropriate Option Class level with the property "maxPrice". The rules for validating that the price does
not go beyond the max set for that component or subcomponent is defined at Model and attached at the
Option Items. What function can be used in the rule to determine the "maxPrice" for each component?
A. max()
B. value()
C. parent()
D. propval()
Answer: C

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NO.9 A major bike manufacturer sells customizable bikes online, and includes assembly and shipping. For a
bike to be completed, the user must select a frame, tires and gear systems. There are several choices
available for the user in each category, but there are some compatibility issues between certain types of
frames and the third-party gear systems that the manufacturer uses. For example, there are three sizes
the bike frames: 19" 20" and 22". There are three models of gear systems that the manufacturer offers:
6.speed, 18-speed and 24-speed. While 6-speed and 18speed fits all the frame sizes, 24-speed is a
premium exclusive model and fits only the 22". The requirement calls for compatibility to be pointed out to
the user. What is the correct way to model this product?
A. Use a rule to automatically fix compatibility issues.
B. Use a Constraint Table to manage the allowable configurations.
C. Use a list to list down the different options available for each frame.
D. Define different properties for gear system 24-speed to distinguish it from 6-speed and 18speed.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A modeler is about to create an Option Class for logos for a Model of t-shirts. The modeler discovers
that there is a Model for logos and that it has been used as a sub-model in a Model for bags. Instead of
attaching the Model for logos as a sub-model to the Option Class, the modeler wants to copy the
reference for the sub-model from the Model for bags. What are the possible advantages of doing this?
A. Any properties attached to the sub-model reference are copied over and may be useful.
B. Any rules and properties attached to the sub-model reference are copied over and may be useful.
C. There is no advantage. It is same as attaching the Model for logos as a sub-model to the Option Class.
D. It is not possible to copy the sub-model reference.
Answer: B

IBM braindump   000-240   000-240

NO.11 A modeler has to create a rule with many fragments. In which order should the fragments be set up for
better performance?
A. The nested fragments should come first.
B. The least probable fragment should come first.
C. The sequence of the fragments do not make any difference.
D. The fragments that use custom function handlers should come first.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A car manufacturer wants to display a list of available cars based on what the customer chooses for the:
What should be the rule fragment/condition written for this?
A. value(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
B. value(AvailableCars) not in propval(CarType) [Fragment is false]
C. propval(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
D. propval(AvailableCars) not in parent(CarType) [Fragment is false]
Answer: C

IBM questions   000-240   000-240

NO.13 A company wants to give its customers a 10% volume discount for its Professional Services if the order
totals 100 or more hours. The $250 hourly (undiscounted) base rate for Professional Services is retained
in an Option Item under an Option Class called base rates in the model and is never displayed in the UI.
Rules will be used to set the UI: PRICE for the Professional Services Option Item displayed in the UI
based on the quantity of hours ordered and the UI: PRICE of the hidden base rate Option Item.
Review the following images which show what is presented to the user in the UI with and without a
discount.
When creating these assignment rules, which function needs to be used to retrieve the hourly base rate
for Professional Services?
A. sum
B. value
C. lookup
D. propval
Answer: D

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NO.14 A furniture company has a Model for a house with an option to select different types of furniture
commonly found in a house (e.g. tables, chairs etc). Each of those furniture types are modeled as Option
Classes and the available options are defined as Option Items. The prices are defined as a property on
Option Items. Multiple selections can be made in each of the furniture types and quantities can be entered
for them. Which function(s) will be needed in a rule attached at the Option Class level to determine the
average price of each of the furniture type selected?
A. sum()
B. childSum()
C. sum(), count()
D. childSum(), count()
Answer: B

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NO.15 A modeler wants to give a discount on the price of cars, but only if the following conditions are
satisfied:
The modeler creates a rule for this and it is set to trigger on success. How will this rule condition be
defined in the Visual Modeler?
B
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N19
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SmartCloud for Social Business Technical Sales Mastery Test v3)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What are the default settings for newly created Communities?
A. All new Communities will be created with the Files widget to upload and share files with the community.
B. All new Communities will have customized templates to create sub-communities.
C. All new Communities will be created with the Bookmarks widget to share links with the community.
D. Communities do not have default settings and the owner must create the settings.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Taylor, a paid subscriber to SmartCloud Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a customer who
does not have an account. How would Taylor invite his customer to join?
A. Taylor's customer could not participate in the meeting since the customer is a guest. Taylor could
record the meeting and send a link to the video recording.
B. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID and when the customer clicked the URL
link, the customer would be prompted to register. Once the customer has registered, they can participate
in the meeting.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask his customer to visit the
SmartCloud for Social Business website to enter the meeting ID and their name in order to join.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for a guest to be registered. Once registration is complete,
the customer can join the meeting by visiting the SmartCloud for Social Business website, authenticating
with their credentials and entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Carl wants his customer to experience SmartCloud for Social Business but the customer does not have
an account. What must Carl do to provide access to SmartCloud for Social Business for his customer.?
A. Carl can assign the customer a guest account with a temporary password for 30 days.
B. Carl can provide the customer with a SmartCloud Connections profile that enables creation of
temporary account for 60 days.
C. Carl can invite the customer through SmartCloud for Social Business which will send a link for his
customer to join as a guest user.
D. There is nothing Carl can do without creating a SmartCloud for Social Business account for the
customer within Carl's SmartCloud company organization.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What level (if any) of anti-spam and anti-virus protection is available to SmartCloud iNotes users?
A. Anti-spam and anti-virus protection is available for Administrators to provide scheduled scans for
viruses and spam.
B. The user must purchase his/her own spam and virus protector because SmartCloud for Social
Business is in the cloud.
C. Full anti-spam and anti-virus services are included with SmartCloud for Social Business.
D. Basic protection is included and advanced protection with additional end user configuration options are
available.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Sarah's SmartCloud for Social Business account was enabled with Skype integration by her
Administrator. What is a requirement to access this SmartCloud for Social Business Integrated
Application?
A. The Skype client is required.
B. The SkypeOut setting must be enabled within SmartCloud for Social Business for calling other Skype
users.
C. This is an integrated application, therefore, the Skype client is not required.
D. Her Administrator must also enable VoIP to connect with SmartCloud for Social Business contacts.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-638
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Lotus Notes & Domino Sales Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Briefly, what is IBM Social Business strategy?
A. Moving all corporate data to the cloud
B. Leveraging social capabilities in context to enable better business results
C. Discouraging employees from using Facebook and Twitter during work
D. Using IBM Watson technology to improve search algorithms
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about the price of Lotus Symphony productivity suite is true?
A. Users pay an entitlement fee of $300 to trade-in Microsoft Office for Lotus Symphony
B. Lotus Symphony is a free download for anyone to use
C. Only users of Notes 8.5 can use Lotus Symphony
D. Only users of Microsoft Office are allowed to replace Office with Lotus Symphony
Answer: B

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NO.3 When speaking with a customer who is still on older versions of Notes and Domino, what is the best
reason for upgrading to Notes and Domino 8.5.?
A. Replication allows for advanced offline capabilities.
B. The Notes user interface still looks much like Notes Version 5, which appeals to older workers.
C. Organizations can significantly reduce IT costs by upgrading to Domino 8.5.
D. The Domino server has been re-engineered to run on WebSphere Application Server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Recipient indicators in Notes mail enhances productivity by providing users with what information?
A. The indicate how many people have received an email.
B. The indicate whether the user is a direct recipient of email or justcopied.
C. The indicate whether an email contains an attachment.
D. They indicate whether a recipient has received an email.
Answer: A

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NO.5 How many Notes and Notes and Domino applications are estimated to be in active use today?
A. over 10 million
B. over 1 million
C. fewer than 100,000
D. over 700 million
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-N14
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SPSS Collaboration and Deployment Services Technical Support Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 If the keystore file that is generated during the C&DS installation is inadvertently deleted from the
system, which of the following steps must be performed to recover.?
A. Execute the genkey utility within the <C&DS_Install>\bin directory.
B. Enable encryption within the Tools => Security menu.
C. Manually create a new keystore file in the expected location.
D. C&DS will need to be reinstalled.
Answer: D

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NO.2 A customer created a parallel C&DS installation on a separate server, using a copy of the production
repository database. She can login to the repository, objects are being displayed, but most jobs fail to run
and cannot be edited. What could be a likely cause?
A. During the installation, the customer chose to Discard Existing Data data rather than Preserve Existing
Data.
B. Application server has not been started.
C. The save/restore process only migrated part of the content repository data.
D. Additional packages, existing in the production environment, have not been reinstalled after installation
of the parallel environment.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are the steps to start creating a Time-based schedule in the Content Explorer?
A. Right-click the job, choose ?Right-click the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
B. Setup a message domain, then right-click the job, choose ?Setup a message domain, then right-click
the job, choose new Schedule ? Time Based
C. Select the jobstep within the job, choose Schedule tab, enter scheduling details
D. Select the object (e.g. Modeler stream) to be executed by the job, choose File, New, Create
Time-Based job schedule
Answer: A

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NO.4 If the 'Data Collection Execution Server' entry is not listed as a Type when attempting to define a new
Server Definition, which of the following steps would you recommend to a customer to resolve it?
A. Restart the application server for C&DS.
B. Verify the a connection to Data Collection can be established.
C. Verify the Data Collection Adapter is applied to C&DS.
D. Restart the database that houses the C&DS repository.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which statement correctly applies to the versioning capability of C&DS?
A. Version control and object version labels ensure the latest versions of assets are being used in
production processes.
B. Old object versions are automatically deleted to preserve storage.
C. An analyst can store a version of a file in development, and modify it until it is finalized and ready to be
moved into a production process.
D. Versioning refers to the ability to merge multiple object versions into one version.
Answer: C

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NO.6 R&D fixed an issue with Modeler integration in Deployment Manager client. A Fix Pack has been
released. For which product and which fix should the customer look on Fix Central?
A. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Server
B. Product: C&DS; Fix Pack for C&DS Adapter
C. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Server
D. Product: Modeler; Fix Pack for Modeler Adapter
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator applied a patch to the C&DS installation and started the server. A user, using the
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client is not working. What should the administrator check to resolve this?
A. Ensure the user downloaded and manually installed the corresponding client patch.
B. Verify if the client license is still valid.
C. The only way to install a client update is to re-download the Deployment Manager client from the server.
Make sure that this has been done.
D. Ensure the user restarted the Deployment Manager Windows client, after having received a version
update message.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which section within Deployment Manager client would the user expand upon to see all folders and
objects that she is authorized to view?
A. Submitted Jobs
B. Content Repository
C. Resource Definitions
D. Repository Insight
Answer: B

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NO.9 If problems occur during C&DS 5.0 repository configuration, which directory contains the log files to
review for errors?
A. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/install/log
B. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/log
C. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/config/log
D. <C&DS 5 Repository installation directory>/debug/ConfigTool/log
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer wants to automate the rerun of a C&DS job each time a Modeler stream in one of the
jobsteps is updated. How can this be achieved?
A. A message-based job schedule can run a job, based on a notification message sent at the update of
the Modeler stream.
B. This can only be achieved through a time based schedule if the Modeler stream is updated at fixed
times.
C. C&DS does not allow this kind of dependency
D. Define a "loop" connector between the Modeler jobstep and the job.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-244
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Optimization Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following applications do NOT benefit from Optimization.?
A. Portfolio management
B. Scheduling advertisements on TV channels
C. Credit Application processing
D. Employee management
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following features are NOT provided by ODME?
A. Data Visualization and editing.
B. Scenario Management and Collaborative planning.
C. Out of the box Client/Server Architecture.
D. Web-enabled client/Thin Client.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which type of problem is CPLEX NOT well equipped to solve?
A. Nonlinear Program
B. Linear Program
C. Quadratic Program
D. Integer Program
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which statement does NOT apply to Optimization?
A. It is the same as business simulation.
B. It helps companies make choices to reach a target while observing limits and data.
C. It improves resource utilization (e.g., Capital, equipments, facilities).
D. It helps companies provide better customer service.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following is NOT a key element in qualifying an IBM ILOG Optimization sales opportunity?
A. Can the System be Optimized?
B. Problem can be formulated in nested if , then , else statements.
C. Can you understand the relationships between choices and outcomes?
D. Is data readily available?
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 00M-652
Exam Name: IBM (Curam Sales Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 46 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is a case?
A.It is used to manage interactions between the participant and the agency
B.A case is a category of intake questions
C.It is a key part ofCuram
D.A and C
Answer: C

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NO.2 Curam is a fully integrated product suite.What types of social programs does Curam support?
A.Social Security
B.Free milk program
C.The space program
D.None of the above
Answer: A

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NO.3 Curam is an important component of IBM s Smarter Cities strategy by providing the solutions for which
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A.Infrastructure
B.Planning and Management
C.Human
D.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.4 The Social Program Management Platform Value Proposition includes:
A.Enables a rapid, lower-risk implementation by leveraging pre-built and configurable social services
elements and business processes
B.Empowers the business to define and deploy new programs through configuration tools in a runtime
environment
C.Protects current investment and provides flexibility to address new and emerging service delivery
trends
D.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.5 Understanding how the tiers of government operate is critical to successful opportunity identification
and prospecting since that understanding allows you to:
A.Align the payment schedules to the government schedules
B.Know which is the middle tier so as not to incorrectly promote them to the top and bottom
C.Know where to send the invoice whenCuramsolutions are sold
D.AlignCuramsolutions directly to the business of the jurisdiction
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-G40
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SmartCloud Enterprise+ (SCE+) Sales Mastery Test)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which two hardware server standards does IBM use to deliver SmartCloud Enterprise+?
(Choose two.)
A.System z
B.System p
C.System i
D.System x
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Which contractual document should a sales professional use to respond to a customer
question regarding security roles and responsibilities?
A.Security (ISeC) Agreement
B.Internet Security Systems Contract (ISSC)
C.International Agreement
D.Security Services Contracts Online (COL)
Answer: A

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NO.3 A sales professional needs to change the price of a virtual machine (VM).Which option should
the sales professional adjust?
A.European Union labor adder
B.number of virtual machines
C.virtual private network (VPN)
D.data center location
Answer: A

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NO.4 How does a customer notify IBM of a problem?
A.submitting a service request in the SCE+ portal
B.registering the problem with its IBM account representative
C.sending a monitoring alert to the IBM delivery team
D.opening a ticket with its internal help desk
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which feature is a roadmap item for the SCE+ offering?
A.disaster recovery
B.virtual machine provisioning
C.hybrid cloud integration
D.iSeries operating systems
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two geographical locations were first used to deliver the SCE+ offering? (Choose two.)
A.Raleigh, North Carolina
B.Tokyo, Japan
C.Ehningen, Germany
D.London, UK
E.Boulder, Colorado
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 What is an allowable option for a customer to modify a virtual machine (VM)?
A.add memory
B.change the operating system
C.move to a different physical server
D.export to its on-premise environment
Answer: A

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NO.8 What is the maximum service level IBM provides for managing a hosted environment?
A.storage
B.application
C.hypervisor
D.operating system
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is a client benefit to provisioning in SCE+?
A.time in days versus weeks
B.the ability to host the cloud in a customer data center
C.use of mainframe technology
D.the ability to use a private image
Answer: A

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NO.10 A customer plans to use SCE+ virtual private network (VPN) topology-based access.The
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should the sales professional recommend?
A.virtual firewall
B.virtual load balancer
C.virtual network hub
D.virtual intrusion detection server
Answer: A

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Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cúram V6, Development)
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Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 If process class MySubProcess is a subclass of MyProcess and the required implementation
classes
exist, which of the following statements are true?
A. curam.intf.MySubProcess extends curam.intf.MyProcess
B. curam.base.MySubProcess extends curam.impl.MyProcess
C. curam.base.MySubProcess extends curam.base.MyProcess
D. curam.fact.MySubProcessFactory extends curam.fact.MyProcessFactory
E. curam.impl.MySubProcess implements curam.base.MySubProcess
Answer: A,B

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about the extension class EntityExtension that extends the
entity
class Entity is true.?
A. The generator produces a new Java class curam.struct.EntityExtensionDtls containing any new or
overridden attributes, as well as the attributes remaining from curam.struct.EntityDtls.
B. The generator produces a new Java class curam.struct.EntityExtensionDtls containing any new or
overridden attributes.
C. The generator produces no new Java classes, but replaces curam.struct.EntityDtls with a new
version
containing the new or overridden attributes, as well as any others remaining from the original
Entity.
D. The generator produces a new curam.intf.EntityExtension class containing the method signatures
of
curam.intf.Entity, as well as any new or overridden methods.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Suppose that a new Process class has been created in a model and a build generated
command is
performed.
What needs to be done next?
A. Implement the methods in the generated impl version of the class.
B. Copy the generated impl class from the build/svr/gen/temp folder into the impl package.
C. Create a new class in the impl package.
D. Implement the modeled methods in the base class.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Review the Screenshot presented.
What type of application navigation element can be expected to correspond with the element
highlighted
by the red box?
A. Selection
B. Menu
C. Tab
D. Navigation
E. Shortcut-Tab
Answer: B

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NO.5 An application's Server Components folder contains the following components: Appeals, core,
custom,
ISScreening, and ServicePlanning.
The SERVER_COMPONENT_ORDER variable is set as follows:
SERVER_COMPONENT_ORDER=custom, ServicePlanning.
Which of the following statements BEST reflects the order of priority (decreasing priority left to
right) in
which the generators will process the components?
A. custom, ServicePlanning, core
B. custom, ServicePlanning
C. custom, ServicePlanning, Appeals, core, ISScreening
D. custom, ServicePlanning, Appeals, ISScreening, core
E. Appeals, custom, ISScreening, ServicePlanning, core
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-463
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoS phere Guardium)
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Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The policy has an extrusion rule with action of 'Log Extrusion Counter' when a credit card
number
is returned by the query. The inspection engine is configured with:
Query 'select credit_card from TABLE1 where customer_id in (1,2,3);' returns a total of 120
records with 10 credit cards returned in each network packet. What is expected result for
SUM(Returned Data Count) from Full SQL domain for this query?
A. 0
B. 12
C. 74
D. 120
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which storage type requires a dsm.sys file to be uploaded to the Guardium appliance?
A. SCP
B. TSM
C. SFTP
D. CENTERA
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which method stops a non-GIM installed Windows S-TAP?
A. Invoking the "stop winstap" command.
B. Stopping the GUARDIUM_STAP service.
C. Ending Guardium S-TAP process through Task Manager.
D. Removing S-TAP from startup programs and rebooting server.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How does Application End User Translation determine the correct application user?
A. Uses Client MAC Address to determine Client IP .
B. Imports LDAP and matches Client IP address with Application User name.
C. Guesses the correct application user by comparing session time to / from the database server.
D. Integrates with Enterprise Business Application to deterministically capture application user
name.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When configuring S-TAP on Solaris Zones or AIX WPARs, what is the correct way to configure
the
connect_to_ip parameter in the Inspection Engines?
A. connect_to_ip = 127.0.0.1
B. connect_to_ip = 1.1.1.1 / 0.0.0.0
C. connect_to_ip = <IP address of local zone>
D. connect_to_ip = <IP address of global zone>
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the
K-TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is
not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on
Central Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX
platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is a disadvantage of using S-TAP terminate action in the policy (and related functionality)
over S-GATE terminate?
A. There is a need to install the S-TAP agent on the database server and as a result it's harder to
deploy.
B. Additionally licensed feature needs to be installed and as a result there is additional cost
associated with this functionality.
C. The decision to terminate is done by S-TAP and as a result it has significant negative impact on
database server performance.
D. The violation activity will start bringing results from the database before the connection is
terminated and as a result data leakage is possible.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which ports are used by UNIX S-TAP?
A. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 TCP (encrypted)
B. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 TCP (encrypted)
C. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 UDP (heartbeat signal)
D. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 UDP (hearbeat signal)
Answer: B

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NO.10 With Guardium version 8.x "S-TAP for z" monitoring a single DB2 instance on z/OS, which
statement is true?
A. There is typically 1 started task running on z:
ADHSPAGT = Agent
B. There are typically 2 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHSPSRV = Server
C. There are typically 3 started tasks running on z:
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
D. There are typically 4 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
Answer: D

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Exam Code: BAS-001
Exam Name: IBM (IBM OpenPages Developer Fundamentals)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 The Object Manager tool provided with OpenPages allows for the import and export of data
in
which format?
A. XLS
B. SQL
C. PDF
D. XML
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are working with an AECON data sheet. What are two global configurations? (Choose
two.)
A. Dependent picklists
B. Detail View
C. Field dependencies
D. Activity Views
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 What must you do before entering information about the user, user account, and creating the
new
OpenPages user?
A. Assign the user at least one profile.
B. Select the group to which the user will belong.
C. Assign the user at least one role.
D. Ensure that the organization structure has been finalized.
Answer: B

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NO.4 A user requires the ability to create child Processes directly associated to parent Business
Entities
in the application. Which minimum Security Access Control Permissions should the administrator
grant to the user’s role template?
A. Grant read access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
B. Grant read/write access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
C. Grant read/write/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write access on the Process.
D. Grant read/associate access on the Entity; grant read/write/associate access on the Process.
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are using the OpenPages GPO platform and want to develop a new workflow. Which tool
would you use?
A. Interstage BPM Console
B. Interstage BPM Workflow Studio
C. CommandCenter Query Studio
D. Microsoft Office Visio
Answer: B

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NO.6 You want to configure new fields in the IBM OpenPages platform using data types. What are
three
valid data types? (Choose three.)
A. Single file
B. Reporting fragment
C. Picklist
D. Currency
E. Rich text
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.7 What are the three basic components of the IBM OpenPages platform? (Choose three.)
A. Application server
B. Database server
C. Authentication server
D. E-mail server
E. Cognos Business Intelligence server
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.8 Which three statements describe valid business benefits of IBM OpenPages platform modules?
(Choose three.)
A. Provides confidence that compliance is achieved, risks are mitigated and corporate policies and
procedures are enforced.
B. Provides a compliance and business focused view into the corporate general ledger.
C. Provides executive management with assurance into the state of compliance.
D. Standardizes compliance across regulations to reduce cost and deliver a holistic understanding
of all compliance risk.
E. Provides assurance to executive management that the company meets all corporate board
governance goals.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.9 In IBM OpenPages, you want to configure a profile. Which three functions are available?
(Choose
three.)
A. Associate users.
B. Add new fields to the database.
C. Set localized object text.
D. Set up a home page.
E. Configure views for an object type.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.10 Which three values are correct Object Manager command line parameters? (Choose three.)
A. Dump or “d”
B. Extract or “e”
C. Load or “l”
D. Verify or “V”
E. Test or“t”
Answer: A,C,D

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