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Exam Code: HP0-M15
Exam Name: HP (HP Quality Center 9.2 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 90 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the parameters?
A. values are assigned from within the calling test
B. values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. values are assigned during test design or execution
D. values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
Answer: C

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NO.2 When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested. When
writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select
two.)
A. specify all actual results
B. use parameters in the step names
C. specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. use the numbering system for the step names
E. use consistent terminology throughout the test
Answer: CE

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NO.3 What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
A. test cases
B. repository
C. load test
D. defects
Answer: B

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NO.5 What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
Answer: D

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NO.7 What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
A. make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject
path
D. select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic
conversion
Answer: C

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NO.8 How is a test configured as a template test?
A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
Answer: C

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NO.9 What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
Answer: CE

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NO.10 Where can you link tests to requirements?
A. from the Test Lab module
B. from the Requirements module
C. on the test details page (Test Plan)
D. on the attachments page (Test Plan)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-P17
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 Security Administration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 106 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which product encrypts data on zx2-based Integrity servers?
A. HP-UX VxFS filesystem
B. HP-UX Encryption Module
C. HP-UX Trusted Computing Services
D. HP-UX Integrity Trusted Platform Module
Answer: C

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NO.2 After running kctune executable_stack=2, what happens if MyProg executes code from the stack?
A. MyProg continues running without incident.
B. MyProg is killed before a single instruction can be executed.
C. MyProg continues, but logs a warning to /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log.
D. MyProg continues, but a warning message is logged to the kernel message buffer.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Where are Trusted Computing Services (TCS) protected EVFS keys stored?
A. HP-UX kernel
B. EVFS volume
C. system stable storage
D. HP-UX root file system
E. Trusted Platform Module
Answer: D

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NO.4 How can you grant NFS filesystem access to specific users as opposed to all users? (Select two.)
A. Specify the desired users to the /etc/dfs/sharetab entry for the mount point using the format
"-access=user1:user2:user3".
B. Add the desired users to an ACL and set the permissions of the shared filesystem such that only
members of the ACL can access the data.
C. Add the desired users to a group and set the permissions of the shared filesystem such that only
members of the group can access the data.
D. Add the desired users to a netgroup and specify the netgroup in the /etc/dfs/sharetab entry for the
mount point using the format "-access=netgroup".
Answer: BC

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NO.5 Which chatr syntax enables buffer overflow protection on a per-binary basis?
A. chatr +b enable <binary>
B. chatr -es enable <binary>
C. chatr +es enable <binary>
D. chatr +bo enable <binary>
E. chatr +es default <binary>
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which commands configure an application to operate within a secure compartment? (Select two.)
A. privrun
B. privedit
C. setrules
D. cmdprivadm
E. setfilexsec
Answer: DE

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NO.7 What is a limitation of HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) as it applies to Denial of Service (DoS)
attacks?
A. Processes must be grouped before they can be managed.
B. PRM does not perform memory capping; only entitlement and selection.
C. PRM only applies to time-shared processes; real-time processes are not affected.
D. PRM requires a separate configuration file for time-shared and real-time processes.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Identify ways HP Process Resource Manager (PRM) can protect a system against poorly designed
applications. (Select three.)
A. PRM can limit the amount of memory applications may consume.
B. PRM can limit the amount of swap space applications may consume.
C. PRM can limit the amount of disk bandwidth applications may consume.
D. PRM can limit the amount of CPU resources applications may consume.
E. PRM can limit the amount of network bandwidth applications may consume.
F. PRM can limit the number of inbound network connections to configured applications.
Answer: ACD

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NO.9 What is the effect of the coreadm -e global-setid command?
A. edits the core dump file
B. reads and interprets the core dump file
C. enables the kernel for system crash dumps
D. enables setuid/setgid core dumps system wide
E. causes all running setuid programs to generate a core file
Answer: D

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
You used the dmesg command to display the warning shown in the exhibit. Which kernel parameter
setting makes this
warning message appear?
A. kill_overflow is set to 1
B. exc_stack_code is set to 0
C. buffer_overflow is set to 1
D. executable_stack is set to 0
Answer: D

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NO.11 Where can an HP-UX 11i v3 EVFS-encrypted backup tape from an HP Integrity rx7640 Server be
restored and decrypted?
A. only on the HP-UX system where the tape was created
B. on any HP-UX system where the symmetric encryption key resides
C. on any HP-UX system where the backup owner's public key resides
D. on any HP-UX system where the backup owner's public/private key pair resides
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which tool is recommended for providing file integrity information?
A. hash
B. cksum
C. crypt
D. md5sum
Answer: D

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NO.13 Some open source software tools use the /usr/local/sbin and /usr/local/src directories. What should
you do with the /usr/local directory to maintain a secure system?
A. Verify that /usr/local and its subdirectories are not world writable.
B. Remove /usr/local/bin and /usr/local/sbin from the user's PATH variable.
C. Set permissions on /usr/local and its subdirectories to 047 so all users have access.
D. Use the swlist -l file | grep /usr/local command to see all files installed in those directories.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is true regarding an HP-UX VxFS filesystem using ACLs?
A. Default ACLs can only be placed on a file.
B. Default ACLs have the same owner as the owner of the file the ACL controls.
C. A directory's ACL can have default entries that are applied to files subsequently.
D. An ACL has an owner that can be different from the owner of the file the ACL controls.
Answer: C

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In order to restrict the access to the /etc/group file through FTP, which statement should be included in
the /etc/ftpd/ftpaccess file?
Identify the features of the TCP Wrappers product. (Select three.)
A. noaccess /etc/group
B. noretrieve /etc/group
C. accessdeny /etc/group
D.
suppressaccess
/etc/group
Answer: B

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A. enhances cryptographic authentication
B. provides protection against IP address spoofing
C. provides protection against hostname spoofing
D. provides data encryption on TCP "wrapped" connections
E. provides enhanced protection for RPC daemons using TCP/IP connections
F. provides enhanced security for daemons managed by inetd using TCP/IP connections
G. may be configured to provide enhanced security for any daemon using TCP/IP connections
Answer: BCF

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NO.15 Encrypted Volume and File System (EVFS) uses which type of key to encrypt data?
A. digital certificate
B. RSA-1024 bit public key
C. RSA-2048 bit private key
D. AES-128 bit symmetric key
E. AES-256 bit asymmetric key
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which benefits does chroot provide to an application from a security perspective? (Select three.)
A. forces an application to start in a specified directory
B. allows the users to do a cd above the specified directory
C. prevents an application from starting in a specified directory
D. prevents the users from doing a cd above the specified directory
E. allows the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
F. prevents the users of the application access to the directory and the directories below it
Answer: ADE

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NO.17 After running /usr/sbin/pwck, the following output is displayed:
smbnull:*:101:101::/home/smbnull:/sbin/sh Login directory not found
What should you do to tighten the security?
A. Nothing - it is a valid system user ID.
B. Nothing - it is used by CIFS/Samba to represent "nobody" with a positive UID.
C. Edit the /etc/passwd entry to specify a dummy login directory and a false login shell.
D. Delete it from /etc/passwd. Opensource Samba installs it by default and it is not required on HP-UX.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Identify where Encrypted Volume and File System (EVFS) protects data.
A. in transit
B. in the kernel
C. over the network
D. on the storage device
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-874
Exam Name: HP (Implementing Windows 2000 on HP ProLiant Clusters)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are two ways that Compaq ProLiant clusters ensure reliability and investment protection of new
and existing clusters? (Choose two)
A. Certifies servers
B. Cluster application Tech Notes
C. Backward-compatible array controllers
D. Cost-effective migration paths across all cluster configurations
Answer:

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NO.2 What is a cluster node?
A. A group of servers.
B. A cluster client.
C. A server that is a member of a cluster.
D. Any hardware component that is part of a cluster.
Answer:

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NO.3 What two features are exclusive to SQL Server 2000 when compared to SQL Server 7.0? (Choose
two)
A. Automatic detection of the cluster during installation.
B. Fully cluster-aware.
C. Hot standby active/passive configuration.
D. Mutual backup active/active configuration.
Answer:

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NO.4 You have a ProLiant cluster running Windows NT 4.0. You are preparing to upgrade the cluster to
Windows 2000. What should you do before running the Primer Utility?
A. Dissolve NIC teams.
B. Run the Windows 2000 Readiness Analyzer.
C. Upgrade NIC teaming.
D. Dissolve the cluster.
Answer:

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NO.5 How many simultaneous SQL Server instances can be running on a cluster?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer:

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NO.6 How do you eliminate a single point of failure in hubs and switches?
A.Connect a single hub or switch to both adapters in a fault-tolerant team.
B.Connect redundant NICs to separate hubs or switches.
C. Design the cluster using only hubs and no switches.
D. Design the cluster to use NIC teaming.
Answer:

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NO.7 Which Exchange 2000 feature enables you to take mailboxes offline in smaller groups to reduce backup
time?
A. Distributed architecture
B. Consolidated architecture
C. Multiple virtual server instances
D. Active/active configuration
Answer:

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NO.8 Which tape library is NOT supported by the Enterprise Backup Solution?
A. SSL2020 AIT
B. Model 4000
C. Model 35/70 DLT
D. TL895
Answer:

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NO.9 Which command should be run to prepare the Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordinator service to
become cluster-aware?
A. comclust.exe
B. dtcprep.exe
C. tdcconfig.exe
D. clusdtc.exe
Answer:

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NO.10 What type of disk access support do SQL Server 2000 and the Cluster service provide?
A. Dynamic disk
B. Shared disk
C. Mutual disk
D. Shared-nothing disk
Answer:

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NO.11 What is the benefit of software load balancing?
A. Easier to manage than hardware load balancing.
B. Low cost.
C. Scalability
D. No processor load on the application server farms.
Answer:

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NO.12 Identify two standard features of the Storage Works MSA1000 storage system by Compaq. (Choose
two)
A. 2Gb/s maximum transfer speeds.
B. Maximum of 84 Compaq Universal 1-inch Ultra3 drives supported.
C. Embedded 6-port 2Gb/s Fabric Switch.
D. Native FIBER Channel design.
Answer:

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NO.13 In a Microsoft Windows 2000 Advanced Server environment, how many nodes can host a resource at
one time?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32
Answer:

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NO.14 What is the primary feature of the ProLiant HA/F500 Enhanced Disaster-Tolerant stretched-cluster
configuration?
A. It combines the functionality of Data Replication Manager with the failover functionality of the Windows
2000 Cluster service.
B. It stores vast amounts of data inexpensively for large businesses.
C. It combines Windows 2000 Cluster service functionality with Ethernet distribution to allow faster data
access.
D. It combines the functionality of SANworks Virtual Replicator with the functionality of the Windows 2000
Cluster service.
Answer:

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NO.15 The Compaq Cluster Backup Connectivity Kit is designed for what ProLiant system?
A. DL380 Packaged Cluster
B. DL580 Cluster
C. DL590/64 Cluster
D. DL760 Datacenter Cluster Solution
Answer:

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NO.16 Which item is a storage subsystem restriction?
A. Storage Works Data Replication Manager (DRM) for the Storage Works MA8000 storage system
cannot be used to span physical Fiber Channel storage boxes.
B. Microsoft Windows 2000 must have a maximum of 12 drive letters per cluster for shared drives.
C. The Windows 2000 disk type must be dynamic, not basic.
D. Hardware-based disk fault tolerance cannot span physical Fiber Channel storage boxes, with the
exception of Storage Works DRM-enabled storage subsystems.
Answer:

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NO.17 What is one of the functions of the Cluster Node command?
A. Rename a cluster node.
B. Check the status of node resources.
C. Pause a cluster node.
D. Power down a cluster node.
Answer:

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NO.18 What should NOT be modified in the cica.ini file?
A. Read/write levels.
B. User names.
C. Administrator password.
D. Anything other than read/write levels.
Answer:

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NO.19 Which three components are included in the reliability testing of Compaq ProLiant clustering solutions?
(Choose three)
A. Application software
B. System management software
C. Storage system
D. Interconnect options
E. Backup software
Answer:

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NO.20 What determines the state of each resource when a group fails over?
A. The rights of the resource within that group.
B. The dependencies of the resource on the other resources in the group.
C. The group assignments of the group in the Cluster Administrator.
D. The IP address within the failed group.
Answer:

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Exam Code: HP0-003
Exam Name: HP (HP OpenView Service Desk 5.x)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 75 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 How do Service Call records and Work Order records differ with respect to their link to a Configuration
Item?
A.A Service Call can be linked to multiple Configuration Items, while a Work Order can only be linked to
one Configuration Item.
B.A Work Order can be linked to multiple Configuration Items, while a Service Call can only be linked to
one Configuration Item.
C.A Work Order can only be related to Configuration Items via a Change record.
D.A Configuration Item cannot be linked to a Service Call and a Work Order simultaneously.
Answer:B

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NO.2 When implementing Incident Management with HP OpenView Service Desk, what authorizations must
be defined when using Roles? Select THREE.
A.Forms & Templates
B.Objects
C.Scheduled Tasks
D.Filters
E.Workspaces
Answer:A B E

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NO.3 Which statements are TRUE regarding Workgroups? Select TWO.
A.Workgroups are used for object records assignment.
B.Workgroups are used to create departments in organizations.
C.A member of a parent workgroup is also a member of the related child workgroup.
D.A person can be a member of multiple workgroups.
Answer:A D

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NO.4 Which statement about the Service Call Object in OpenView Service Desk is TRUE?
A.When a Service Call is closed it will be automatically added to the FAQ section on the web interface.
B.The deadline of a Service Call is determined by the priority-duration code table settings.
C.Service Calls can only be modified and closed by Service Desk Named Users.
D.Service Calls can only be received through the web interface and by telephone.
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which levels of organization can be stored in an organization record?
A.external and internal companies
B.internal companies and workgroups
C.companies, departments and employees
D.all organizational levels
Answer:D

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NO.6 When exchanging configuration data between HP OpenView Service Desk Management Servers, what
requirements are essential? Select TWO.
A.The Management Servers must be the exact same version of Service Desk
B.Configuration Exchange Filters MUST be defined and associated with Filter Groups
C.The Service Desk Management Server MUST be rebooted after a Configuration Exchange Import
D.Duplicate Object entries must be removed in the Service Desk performing the Configuration Exchange
Import
Answer:A B

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NO.7 Which capability allows for the exporting of HP OpenView Service Desk configuration information from
one HP OpenView Service Desk database and the importing into another?
A.Archiving
B.Data Exchange
C.Configuration Exchange
D.Failover
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which two events are normally entered as Service Calls in HP OpenView Service Desk? Select TWO.
A.incidents from the IT infrastructure
B.Requests For Change (RFC)
C.automatic events from other applications
D.Requests For Information (RFI)
Answer:B D

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NO.9 The Checklist Wizard _______.
A.provides a list of regularly scheduled administrative tasks necessary to maintain the health of the
Service Desk application.
B.provides the Help Desk agent a list of questions to ask a customer when opening a specified type of
Service Call.
C.allows for the ease of Data Exchange configuration.
D.is used as part of the Configuration Exchange function.
Answer:B

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NO.10 What types of persons can be registered in a person record?
A.employees and callers
B.employees and specialists
C.external contacts and employees
D.any type of person
Answer:D

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Exam Code: HP0-Y21
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Core Competencies)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 79 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which methods are used by ProCurve Manager Plus to discover manageable devices? (Select three.)
A. scans TCP ports
B. pings to detect replies
C. scans for ProCurve SNMP identifiers
D. reads ARP table
E. tests for Telnet access
F. listens for LLDP messages
Answer: BDF

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NO.2 Which ports configured on a ProCurve switch are equivalent to the access ports on a Cisco Systems
switch?
A. edge ports
B. LAG ports
C. untagged ports
D. tagged ports
Answer: C

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NO.3 You must enable IP routing at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 3500yl, but can remember only that the
command begins with "ip." Which command provides context-sensitive help?
A. 3500yl# ip[ENTER]
B. 3500yl# ip/?[ENTER]
C. 3500yl# help ip[ENTER]
D. 3500yl# ip?[ENTER]
E. 3500yl# ip[TAB]
Answer: E

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NO.4 What is the effect of entering the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
5406zl(vlan-100)#interface a1
A. Port A1 is enabled.
B. The CLI enters the configuration context for port A1.
C. Port A1 becomes a tagged member of VLAN 100.
D. The CLI displays the status of port A1.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which VLAN configuration parameters must be reviewed when a network user group relocates to an
office facility with a new network setup? (Select two.)
A. VLAN membership for other workstations in the group's new facility
B. VLAN membership for the switch ports that will provide connectivity for the group's workstations
C. IP addressing for the default VLAN on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
D. VLAN membership for the uplink port on the switch that will provide connectivity between the group
and resources connected to other switches
E. VLAN membership of the default gateway on the switch that will provide connectivity for the group's
workstations
Answer: BD

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NO.6 What is the effect of issuing the following command at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5400zl(config)# include-credentials
A. Management passwords and user names will be displayed in the running configuration.
B. Local management user names and passwords will be stored on the configured RADIUS server.
C. The switch will send and require authentication information for all SNMP communications.
D. User names and passwords will be required for all management access.
Answer: A

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NO.7 At a customer site, a network technician notices that a device deleted from the Navigation Pane in
ProCurve Manager Plus (PCM+) reappears after two days. How can the technician prevent this behavior?
A. Disable LLDP on the device.
B. Delete the device's subnet from the Managed Subnets list.
C. Configure PCM+ discovery options to ignore the device's VLAN.
D. Add the device to the Excluded Devices list.
Answer: D

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NO.8 You must configure password protection for read/write access to the CLI of a ProCurve switch. Which
command is necessary to complete this task?
A. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password operator
B. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password manager
C. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password administrator
D. ProCurve Switch 5304XL(config)# password port-access
Answer: B

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NO.9 You must define a hostname on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl. Which configuration context must you enter
to perform this task?
A. manager
B. interface configuration
C. operator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.10 You must configure a ProCurve switch to help protect a customer network from malicious users who
might attempt to exhaust the address pool of the company's DHCP server. Which ProCurve feature will
help to address this vulnerability?
A. DHCP snooping
B. Dynamic ARP protection
C. built-in DHCP server
D. DHCP relay
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which privilege level is indicated by this prompt in the CLI of a ProCurve switch?
Switch_1A#
A. manager
B. operator
C. global configuration
D. viewer
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which statement is correct about the discovery features of ProCurve Manager (PCM) with ProCurve
Manager Plus (PCM+)?
A. PCM+ enables the scheduling of auto-discovery; PCM requires users to initiate discovery manually.
B. PCM+ and PCM use identical discovery processes.
C. PCM+ supports discovery based on LLDP, CDP and FDP; PCM supports discovery based only on
CDP and FDP.
D. PCM+ will discover devices from manufacturers other than HP; PCM will only discover ProCurve
devices.
Answer: B

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NO.13 In ProCurve Manager Plus, which user type can configure and manage network devices but cannot
add, delete, or modify user accounts?
A. operator
B. viewer
C. manager
D. administrator
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which statement is correct about the support for LLDP offered by ProCurve switches?
A. The LLDP neighbors table contains the system names and MAC addresses of neighbors.
B. LLDP is a reciprocal protocol that provides acknowledgement for each packet transmitted.
C. LLDP is globally disabled by default to avoid any performance impact.
D. When routing is enabled, LLDP is automatically disabled because LLDP messages cannot be
transmitted over routed interfaces.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which authentication methods are supported by the SSH service on ProCurve switches? (Select
three.)
A. MAC-Auth
B. 802.1X
C. Kerberos
D. local user name and password
E. public key
F. RADIUS
Answer: DEF

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NO.16 You must specify network management parameters for ProCurve switches scheduled to be installed
at a customer site. Which two features are offered by SNMPv3, but are not offered by SNMPv1 or
SNMPv2c? (Select two.)
A. configurable trap receiver ports
B. TCP-based message flow control
C. access control based on IP address or DNS name
D. encrypted communications
E. access restrictions based on user identity
Answer: DE

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NO.17 What is the default username and password for the ProCurve Manager Management Server?
A. username: Manager
password: password
B. username: Administrator
password: admin
C. username: Manager
password: value configured during installation
D. username: Administrator
password: value configured during installation
E. username: value configured during installation
password: value configured during installation
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which features are available in ProCurve Manager Plus, but not in ProCurve Manager? (Select two.)
A. alerts notification
B. automatic discovery
C. network topology mapping
D. scheduled software updates
E. CLI device management
F. traffic analysis
Answer: DF

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NO.19 Click the Exhibit button.
Which command enables the ProCurve Switch 3500yl-24G to execute the config2 configuration file
shown in the exhibit?
A. erase config1
B. copy config2 flash primary
C. config active config2
D. boot system flash secondary
Answer: D

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NO.20 You configured untagged port members of VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 on a ProCurve Switch 8212zl.
Additionally, you assigned IP addresses to interfaces in both VLANs. While testing the configuration, you
discover that nodes in the two VLANs cannot ping each other. The nodes are configured correctly and
connected to the correct ports.
What must be done on the 8212zl to enable communication between the nodes?
A. Disable ICMP blocking.
B. Enable IP routing.
C. Add connected ports to both VLANs.
D. Define a default gateway.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which configuration and monitoring interfaces are available when you access a ProCurve switch
through Telnet? (Select two.)
A. menu interface
B. ProCurve Manager
C. command line interface
D. boot monitor interface
E. web interface
Answer: AC

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NO.22 Which ProCurve Manager wizard simplifies the task of changing the SNTP server IP address
parameter on 50 ProCurve 5406zl switches?
A. CLI Wizard
B. Switch Update Wizard
C. Configuration Wizard
D. IP Networking Wizard
E. Network Services Wizard
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which methods can be used to update the ProCurve Switch 5412zl software using the CLI? (Select
two.)
A. FTP over IP connection
B. TFTP over serial port connection
C. direct serial port transfer
D. TFTP over IP connection
E. SNMPv3 transfer over IP connection
Answer: CD

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NO.24 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which ProCurve devices will be automatically discovered by ProCurve Manager?
A. devices in the 5406zl LLDP neighbor table
B. devices in the 192.168.1.0/24 network
C. devices in all networks in the 5406zl route table
D. devices in all networks directly connected to the 5406zl
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which command, entered at the CLI of a ProCurve switch, saves the switch's running configuration to
its startup configuration?
A. write config
B. save startup-config
C. write memory
D. save running-config
E. copy running-config startup-config
Answer: C

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NO.26 Port a1 on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl is a tagged member of VLAN 20. Which devices can
communicate through this port? (Select two.)
A. a port on another switch that is a tagged member of VLAN 20
B. a port on another switch that is an untagged member of VLAN 20
C. an end station that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
D. a port on another switch that cannot insert or remove 802.1Q tags
E. an 802.1Q-compliant end station that is a member of VLAN 20
Answer: AE

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NO.27 while installing ProCurve Manager Server, you specify 192.168.1.1 as the "Start from device." This
device is a ProCurve Switch 5406zl with IP routing and RIP enabled. The switch has interfaces in four IP
networks, including 192.168.1.0/24.
Which step must be taken to enable ProCurve Manager to discover devices in networks other than
192.168.1.0/24?
A. Perform a Manual Discovery for each VLAN configured on the 5406zl.
B. Import the subnet address ranges from the 5406zl routing table.
C. Configure ProCurve Manager to receive SNMP traps from devices in the networks.
D. Add the other networks to the Managed Subnets list in Discovery Preferences.
Answer: D

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NO.28 What is the effect of the following command issued at the CLI of a ProCurve Switch 5406zl?
ProCurve Switch 5406zl# configure terminal
A. The CLI moves to the global configuration context.
B. The CLI echoes user input to the terminal.
C. The CLI displays current configuration parameters.
D. The CLI provides an interface for configuring terminal variables such as line length.
Answer: A

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NO.29 A ProCurve Switch 8212zl must be configured to be the ABR for OSPF areas 0 and 5. While
implementing this configuration, you enter the following command at the switch's CLI:
8212.l(ospf)#area 5 stub 2 no-summary
How will this affect the route tables of other routers in area 5?
A. Only directly connected routes will be listed.
B. Every route known to the 8212zl will be listed with a separate gateway and cost.
C. The only OSPF route will be the interface with the 8212zl.
D. All networks outside area 5 will be summarized as a default route.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which steps are necessary before enabling SSL on a ProCurve switch? (Select two.)
A. Generate an HTTPS client certificate.
B. Import a certificate from a Certificate Authority.
C. Generate a self-signed server certificate.
D. Disable unencrypted Web-based management.
E. Generate public and private keys.
Answer: CE

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Exam Code: HP0-Y19
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Accelerated ASE Mobility)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 63 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Port C1 on a ProCurve Switch 5412zl is a tagged member of VLAN 50 and an untagged member
of VLAN 1. Port C2 and port C3 are at default VLAN settings. What is the effect of the following
command entered at the CLI? 5412zl(config)# trunk c1-c3 trk1
A.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1, but port C1 is not included.
B.The trunk is not defined, because the ports' VLAN memberships do not match.
C.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1 and a tagged member of VLAN 50.
D.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1 but is not a member of VLAN 50.
Correct:D

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NO.2 You configured VLAN 10 and VLAN 24 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl-48G. The network servers
reside in VLAN 10, which has an IP address range of 10.1.10.0/24. Network clients reside in VLAN
24, which has an IP address range of 10.1.24.0/24. You configure an ACL with these entries and
apply it statically to ports in VLAN 24: permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq http permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0
10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq telnet What is the effect of these ACLs on the clients located in
VLAN 24?
A.They would have no access at all, because the ACL is misconfigured.
B.They would be allowed only FTP, HTTP, and Telnet access to 10.1.10.10, but no access anywhere else.
C.They would be allowed only FTP, HTTP, and Telnet access to 10.1.10.10, but full access to everything
else in the 10.1.10.0 subnet.
D.They could not access anything in the 10.1.10.0 subnet, because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
Correct:B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button. What is the role of this Switch 3500yl in the OSPF routing domain?
A.ASBR
B.virtual router
C.ABR
D.internal router
Correct:D

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NO.4 You connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to a port on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl.
The port is a member of a voice VLAN and also requires 802.1X authentication. How will
LLDP-MED and 802.1X interact?
A.The switch will exempt the phone from the 802.1X requirement after confirming its LLDP-MED
information.
B.The switch will submit the phone's authentication credentials to a RADIUS server after the devices
exchange LLDP-MED information.
C.The switch will permit LLDP-MED communication with the phone after authentication is complete.
D.The switch will use information from the phone's first LLDP-MED frame to submit its authentication
credentials.
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which part of the multicast address range is reserved for applications that will remain within an
enterprise intranet?
A.Internetwork Control Block
B.AD-HOC Block
C.Administratively Scoped Address Block
D.Local Network Control Block
Correct:C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button. What does this output from the show ip ospf neighbor command
indicate about the OSPF neighbor relationship between this router and the router with ID 10.3.0.1?
A.They are in different OSPF areas.
B.They have not formed an adjacency.
C.They are configured with different OSPF versions.
D.They are not eligible to be elected DR or BDR.
Correct:B

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NO.7 You must configure Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) on two ProCurve 8212zl switches
and four 5406zl switches. Which configuration is necessary to ensure that all of the switches join
the same MST region?
A.The switches must have identical Port Priorities for shared links in each MST instance.
B.Bridge Priorities on all switches must be configured so that each MST instance has a different Root
Bridge.
C.All switch-to-switch links in each MST instance must be tagged members of all user VLANs.
D.The switches must be configured with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance
mappings.
Correct:D

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NO.8 You are planning a network upgrade at a small company. During a meeting, you learn that the
customer will install VoIP telephones that set Layer 2 priority markers for allvoice traffic, and the
VoIP traffic will not cross any routed links. What is necessary to ensure that ProVision ASIC
switches maintain the priorities set by the phones? (Selecttwo.)
A.LLDP-MED for all voice VLANs
B.an IEEE 802.1p-to-DSCP map for voice traffic
C.port-based priorities for ports connected to phones
D.default QoS settings
E.tagged links for all voice VLAN traffic
Correct:D E

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NO.9 On a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, which feature must be enabled before you can enable VRRP?
A.MSTP
B.IP routing
C.IP multicast
D.RIP
Correct:B

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NO.10 You must configure a ProCurve Switch 8212zl to be the Backup router for a VRID associated
with VLAN 10. What must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID on this router?
A.It must be an address assigned to a multi-netted interface.
B.It must be an address that is not assigned to any interface on either router.
C.It must match the Backup router's address for the VLAN 10 interface.
D.It must match the Owner router's address for the VLAN 10 interface.
Correct:D

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Exam Code: HP0-J25
Exam Name: HP (HP StorageWorks AIS 2008 Delta Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 You are starting Command View EVA by using the SmartStart EVA CD to manage a storage
system. Which statement is correct?
A. You must enable the Advanced mode in SmartStart EVA and right-click on the storage system icon.
B. You must specify the IP address of the management server and select the storage system to
manage within Command View EVA.
C. You must specify only the name of the storage system; SmartStart EVA will automatically locate
and start Command View EVA for this system.
D. You must start Command View EVA from the SmartStart EVA CD without installation and select
the storage system to manage within Command View EVA.
Answer: B

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NO.2 On an EVA4400, what is a requirement for a fully allocated snapshot in relation to its source?
A. It must be located in the same disk group.
B. It must be located in a different disk group.
C. It must be assigned to a higher redundancy level.
D. It must be assigned to the same redundancy level.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What can you use to display performance data provided by the EVA?
A. SIM
B. SSSU.exe
C. Command View EVA
D. performance monitor of the Microsoft Windows operating system
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which controller components of an EVA4400 are customer replaceable?
A. only cache batteries
B. the entire shelf as one unit
C. all components that are available as spare parts
D. all components you can replace without opening the shelf
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which MSA2000 feature disables cache mirroring in active-active mode and might improve
the I/O performance?
A. write-back cache mode (WBCM)
B. write-through cache mode (WTCM)
C. super-sequential cache mode (SSCM)
D. independent cache performance mode (ICPM)
Answer: D

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NO.6 How do you acquire management access to fabric switches?
A. through the FCIP link
B. by using SmartStart EVA
C. by using a Telnet connection
D. through Command View EVA
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which critical events does the Device Specific Module (DSM) impact? (Select three.)
A. error handling
B. bus initialization
C. request handling
D. device initialization
E. OS kernel interface
F. plug and play interface
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 When you add disks to a disk group on an EVA4400, what is a best practice to maintain
redundancy to multiple disk failures?
A. multiples of 2
B. multiples of 6
C. multiples of 8
D. multiples of the number of disk shelves
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which types of spares are available in an MSA2000? (Select three.)
A. vdisk spare
B. array spare
C. global spare
D. default spare
E. dynamic spare
F. dedicated spare
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.10 On an EVA, which event log file is used to log disk shelf events?
A. Controller Event log file
B. Hardware Event log file
C. Storage Cell Event log file
D. Management Event log file
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-J24
Exam Name: HP (Designing and Implementing HP Enterprise Backup Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 92 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Given the following third-party copy sequence:
Step 1 Server initiates backup by sending list of blocks to be backed up to the third-party device.
Step 2 Third-party device issues commands to the external disk subsystem.
Step 3
Step 4External disk subsystem sends data to tape library.
Which action is taken in Step 3?
A.Fibre Channel loop performs LIP.
B.Server IP address is changed.
C.Snapshot is taken.
D.Server backup agent is stopped.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which elements form the backup and restore basics? (Select four.)
A.backup strategies
B.tape rotation scheme
C.journal replication
D.agents selection
E.type of data to backup
F.remote replication
G.correct tape devices
Answer: ABEG

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NO.3 Given the following backup tape rotation scheme:
Incremental backup daily from Monday to Friday using 1 tape
Full backup every Saturday using 1 tape
Tape rotation rule: GFS scheme
Tape retention rule: Son tape overwrites weekly; Father tape only used every Saturday
A month is calculated as 5 Saturdays.
How many tapes are required to run one month of backups?
A.6
B.11
C.12
D.15
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are advantages of using HP StorageWorks D2D Backup Systems over traditional backup that
uses tape media? (Select two.)
A.It provides data protection.
B.It is a scalable Enterprise SAN solution.
C.It enables non-disruptive scalability using Capacity on Demand.
D.It is the safest way to store data for the long term.
E.It provides online access to backup data.
Answer: AE

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NO.5 What is the benefit of having an SDLT tape drive that uses a linear recording technology where the tape
media is moved past the stationary read/write heads?
A.Data stripes that are recorded in vertical format over constant tape media speed provide reliable
recording.
B.Higher data density is recorded in the media in diagonal stripes format.
C.It is more reliable due to fewer moving parts and longer lifespan for the tape media.
D.A single media roller provides better tape tension during reading or writing.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given a drive with the following features:
optical servo tracking
magneto-resistive cluster heads
fewer roller guides than previous generation drive
Which type of drive correctly matches the description?
A.AIT
B.DAT
C.SDLT
D.LTO
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which HP StorageWorks systems can use zero downtime backup technology and remote replications
solutions? (Select two.)
A.VLS Series
B.EML Series
C.XP Series
D.MSA2000 Series
E.EVA Series
Answer: CE

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NO.8 You are required to cascade 2 units of HP B-Series 8Gb/s SAN switches using a 50/125 micron LC-LC
fiber optic cable. The remote SAN switch is connected to an MSL Tape Library. What is the maximum
cable length possible?
A.21 meters
B.150 meters
C.300 meters
D.500 meters
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is a benefit of a disk-to-disk-to-tape backup configuration in an Enterprise Backup Solution?
A.The backup data are copied to a host-managed, low-cost disk to facilitate restores and enable short
term archival storage.
B.Because the speed of staging disks is much higher than the tape speed, the window for
disk-to-disk-to-tape backup shrinks dramatically.
C.All file transfers are controlled by the storage system software, and transfer to tape occurs through
servers that send the data.
D.The backup application backs up the primary disk data to the staging disk, allowing for quick restores of
single files.
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which two-stage backup configuration would you recommend to SMB customers who want a solution
that is easy to install and manage?
A.Mezzanine Backup Solution
B.VLS1000i with MSL2024 Tape Libraries
C.MSA2000fc with MSL2048 Tape Libraries
D.D2D Backup System
Answer: D

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