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Exam Code: C2020-625
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Data Warehouse Developer)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 84 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When creating dimensions, what is commonly used to track historical changes?
A. Level filters
B. Surrogate keys
C. Output filters
D. Derived dimensions
Answer: B

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NO.2 A dimension table tracks employee data. If an employee's phone number changes, the old phone
number does not need to be kept. What kind of change is this?
A. Type 3, non-standard
B. Type 1
C. Type 2
D. Type 2, non-standard
Answer: B

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NO.3 A developer wants to ensure that the business keys in incoming source data are replaced with surrogate
keys in the fact tables. To do this, what must be modified?
A. Hierarchy properties
B. Template properties
C. Fact build properties
D. Connection properties
Answer: B

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NO.4 Some incoming fact data has invalid product codes. The developer wants to accept this fact data and
assign the necessary surrogate keys in the dimension table. What can be done to accomplish this?
A. Accept unmatched member identifiers in the measure element properties.
B. Modify the SQL for the reference structure to exclude the missing product codes.
C. Accept unmatched member identifiers in the dimension element properties and save unmatched
member details via reference structure.
D. Add a derived dimension element to the fact build to store the missing product codes and unsubscribe
the element from the delivery module.
Answer: C

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NO.5 The data in the Product dimension table appears as follows:
What is one of the things that must be done to ensure that all of these records are delivered into the
dimension table?
A. In the properties of the underlying hierarchy, set the Unbalanced Hierarchy feature to Accept.
B. In the properties of the dimension table, specify that late arriving dimension details are to be written to
a table.
C. In the properties of the underlying hierarchy, set the Multiple Parents feature to Accept.
D. In the properties of the template that is used to deliver the dimension build, include an attribute with
effective start date behavior.
Answer: D

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NO.6 To reduce memory usage, what should be done when setting up dimension breaking for a fact build?
A. Ensure that each data source is sorted by the same set of dimensions, in the same sequence.
B. Specify at least one aggregate rule for each dimension element for which breaking is enabled.
C. Disable the hash table and page pool for the fact build.
D. Disable late arriving facts processing for the fact build.
Answer: A

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NO.7 What can be done to minimize memory consumption?
A. Disable dimension breaking on the fact build.
B. Disable fact build logging.
C. Enable dimension breaking on the fact build.
D. Enable auditing on the fact build.
Answer: C

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NO.8 During execution, a fact build generated the following messages in the log file:
What can be done to avoid seeing the last three lines when the build is executed again.?
A. Increase the initial size of the hash table.
B. Decrease the size of the page pool.
C. Disable audit logging.
D. Increase the amount of working memory (in megabytes).
Answer: A

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NO.9 A dimension table tracks employee data. If an employee's work location changes, the previous work
location needs to be kept and a new record needs to be created. What kind of change is this?
A. Type 0
B. Type 1
C. Type 2
D. Type 3
Answer: C

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NO.10 A dimension table contains the following data:
If late arriving fact processing is enabled, what will be the value of the surrogate key assigned to the last
row of fact data?
A. 11110
B. 11111
C. 11112
D. 11113
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2070-581
Exam Name: IBM (IBM FileNet Content Manager V5.1)
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Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT reported to IBM FileNet Dashboard?
A. Remote procedure call counts and durations.
B. Number of documents stored in the Content Engine.
C. System specifications, operating system version, and product version.
D. Real-time graphing of performance data, including CPU load and memory utilization.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the Composite Platform Installation Tool?
A. A tool that allows you to install P8 components only.
B. A tool that allows you to install P8 on multiple servers.
C. A tool that allows you to install P8 components remotely.
D. A tool that allows you to install P8 components on a single server, including the middleware
applications such as the database and web application server software.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Consider the following distributed P8 configuration:
All object stores contain file storage areas and are configured for content based retrieval (CBR). A
complete offline backup of the system runs daily at 10 PM. If server A crashes at 2 PM and must be
replaced, how should the administrator recover the system?
A. Restore all files for server A from backup.
B. Restore all files for server A from backup and re-index the object stores.
C. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the database files to server C.
D. Restore all files for server A from backup and restore the file storage files to the NAS device.
Answer: B

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NO.4 How can you start and stop P8 components?
A. IBM FileNet Enterprise Manager.
B. Command-line based instruction only for Unix.
C. Graphical user interface (GUI) only for Windows.
D. Graphical user interface (GUI) based or command-line-based instruction.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When using Workplace XT and a user is out of the office (e.g., vacation), where can they
specify an alternate person to receive their Process Engine work items?
A. Site Preferences.
B. Process Configuration Console.
C. Task Settings under User Preferences.
D. General Settings under User Preferences.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following actions can be performed within the query builder?
A. Execute Java code.
B. Search across object stores.
C. Perform content-based retrieval.
D. Save searches in an object store.
Answer: C

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NO.7 For documents in which a date based property is a primary identifier, which type of
partitioning will reduce query retrieval time?
A. Date partitioning.
B. Index partitioning.
C. Interval partitioning.
D. Collection partitioning.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which tool is used to create a connection point to an existing Process Engine isolated region?
A. Workplace XT.
B. Process Administrator.
C. FileNet Enterprise Manager.
D. Process Configuration Console.
Answer: C

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NO.9 The Process Engine service user (pe_service_user) is used by the Process Engine to connect
to the Content Engine. What type of account should you create for the pe_service_user?
A. Database account.
B. Directory server account.
C. Application server account.
D. Operating system account.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In which two scenarios should the Content Consistency Checker be used? (choose two.)
A. Content Engine is performing slow.
B. If search templates are not working.
C. After restoring a storage area from backup media.
D. To troubleshoot Fixed Content Device connectivity.
E. If users are unable to view the content of a document when the content is stored in a file storage
area, even when they have view-content permissions on the document.
Answer: C,E

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Exam Code: C2040-925
Exam Name: IBM (Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When creating the ID Vault for your domain, which of the following cannot be the name
of the vault?
A. The name of the server the vault is created on
B. The name of the administrator creating the vault
C. The name of the group that will manage the id vault
D. The same as an organizational unit used in the Domino domain
Answer: D

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NO.2 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes
the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A. There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B. Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who
share a common
organizational certifier.
C. Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory.
Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D. Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users
and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Jose set up Web authentication using primary and secondary directories. Which one
of the following
describes the order in which he set up directories to be searched?
A. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directories. This is the only option
available.
B. Domino primary directory, then either Domino or LDAP secondary directories. The
administrator can
specify the order of secondary searches.
C. LDAP primary directory, then LDAP secondary directory, and then Domino secondary
directories. This
is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
D. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directory, and then LDAP secondary
directories.
This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Edison, the Domino Administrator, wants to enforce file security on HTML and Image
files. Which one
of the following should he do?
A. Enforce ECLs
B. Create File Protection documents
C. Use Protect Directories in the HTTPD.CNF files
D. Domino does not allow security enforcement on HTML and Image files
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which ONE of the following is required when setting up transactional logging on a
server?
A. Enable Transactional Logging in the server document.
B. Add TRANS_LOG=1 to the server's NOTES.INI file.
C. Create a Transactional Logging document in the Directory Catalog.
D. Modify the NOTES.INI log settings to read LOG=LOG.NSF, TRANSLOG.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.6 While configuring an Internet Site document, Kira has left the option blank for which
Domino server
hosts the site. What is the default action the server will perform with this option not
configured?
A. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any Domino server
B. The Internet Site will be loaded on all Domino servers in the domain
C. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the first IP Address on the server
D. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the hostname in the server document
Answer: A

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NO.7 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary
directory must only
be used for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of mbiguous Name dialog boxes
C. This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory
that is
configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following are optional advanced services that must be enabled manually
when first
configuring and installing the Domino server?
A. SMTP server
B. Agent Manager
C. Calendar Connector
D. DOLS (Domino Off-Line Services)
Answer: A

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NO.9 Chaz, the Domino administrator, has noticed performance issues when LDAP
searches are being
performed against the Domino Directory. Which of the following is the best offered solution to
improve
performance?
A. Extend the LDAP schema to add new attributes
B. Create a full text index of the Domino Directory
C. Configure Directory Assistance to load all users into memory in advance
D. Delete the ($LDAP) view in the Domino Directory and let it rebuild automatically
Answer: B

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NO.10 In order to create a Domino cluster, which rights are required for you to have to the
Domino Directory.?
A. Editor access rights and ClusterModifier role
B. Reader access rights and ServerWriter and ServerManager roles
C. Designer access rights and ClusterCreator and ClusterModifier roles
D. Author access and Delete Documents rights and the ServerModifier and ServerCreator
roles
Answer: D

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NO.11 Each time Melissa creates a certifier ID, Domino creates a certifier ID file and which of
the following?
A. Password database
B. Certifier document
C. Password hash file
D. Certifier database
Answer: B

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NO.12 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document
placed?
A. NAMES.NSF
B. CERTLOG.NSF
C. CATALOG.NSF
D. DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.13 In order for Peggy to establish alternate message recall settings on a per server basis,
which of the
following is the best solution?
A. Configure the message recall settings in an organization level policy
B. Configure the message recall settings in each server's notes.ini file
C. Configure the message recall settings in each server configuration document
D. Configure the message recall settings in explicit policies and manually apply to users
Answer: C

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NO.14 Given the following scenario, what will occur if the sender attempts to recall a message
after 10 days
have elapsed since it was originally sent to the recipient: - The sender and recipient are on
the same mail
server - The server is configured to allow message recall - The recipient is a member of a
group policy
that allows message recall - The sender is a member of a group policy that does not allow
message recall
- The sender has an explicit policy that allows message recall Message recall is allowed for
14 days for
the sender - Message recall is allowed for 8 days for the recipient
A. The sender will be allowed to recall the sent message
B. The sender will not be allowed to recall the sent message
C. The sender will receive a non-delivery report back stating the message recall failed
D. The sender will be prompted that they have exceeded the maximum time allowed for
message recall
Answer: A

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NO.15 A Notes mail message is sent by Miguel to an Internet address through an adjacent
Domino domain
over NRPC that then sends mail to the Internet over SMTP. Miguel is now attempting to
recall the mail
message. Which of the following will be the result of his attempt?
A. He will receive an email that he cannot recall the email message
B. He will immediately receive a prompt that the message is not enabled for message recall
C. He will receive a message from the Internet recipients mail server that the message
cannot be recalled
D. He will successfully recall the message if it is allowed in the server configuration and
enabled in his
user policy
Answer: A

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Exam Code: P2050-007
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Optimization Technical Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 When should you use Constraint programming optimization.?
A. With detailed/complexity scheduling applications.
B. With real valued non linear applications.
C. With difficult combinatorial problems.
D. Both A and C.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What does IBM ILOG CPLEX Optimization Studio enable?
A. Debugging optimization models.
B. Collaboration between planners.
C. Scenario sharing through a central repository.
D. Out of the box scalable enterprise deployment.
Answer: A

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NO.3 IBM ILOG CPLEX CP Optimizer ______________________.
A. is not a component of IBM ILOG CPLEX Optimization Studio
B. can not be called to solve scenarios from IBM ILOG ODM Enterprise
C. can be called to solve scenarios from IBM ILOG ODM Enterprise
D. can only be called from it own C++, Java and .Net APIscan only be called from it? own
C++, Java
and .Net APIs
Answer: C

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Exam Code: A2180-178
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.2, BPM Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A developer is integrating WebSphere Lombardi Edition with an external system using a SOAP
connector. What language should the developer use in the SOAP request for the integration to function
properly?
A. XML
B. XSLT
C. HTML
D. XHTML
Answer: A

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NO.2 A developer requires a service to query a database. The database does not have any restrictions on
user/system permissions or on the operations allowed to be performed by users/systems. Which of the
following operations can the developer perform on the database with the SQL Execute Statement
service?
A. Read, write and update
B. Read only, not write or update
C. Read only, not write or update, and binary large objects (BLOB) data types cannot be read
D. Read, write and update, but binary large objects (BLOB) data types cannot be read, written, or updated
Answer: A

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NO.3 A developer needs to use the static custom Java API that was developed by another development team.
The developer needs to use that custom API directly in the Lombardi process application and toolkits.
Which one of the following connectors must the developer use to fulfill the above requirement?
A. API Connector
B. HTTP Connector
C. Java Connector
D. SOAP Connector
Answer: C

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NO.4 A developer builds an integration service using a Java Integration Component, and wants the result of
the Java method that is invoked to be serialized and returned to the Integration service as an XML
element. What must the developer do to ensure this.?
A. Enable the Translate JavaBeans check box.
B. Nest the Integration service in another service.
C. Choose the method that you want to call on the class.
D. Click the Variables tab for the Integration service to add any input variables.
Answer: A

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NO.5 A developer implements the following service:
What does the developer find after the service attempts to handle the exception if the Special Handler
script fails?
A. The service is terminated.
B. The script is executed repeatedly until the error is resolved.
C. The service throws the exception to be caught by a higher level service or process.
D. An exception is caught and processed within the current activity and then the service terminates.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: M2020-645
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Business Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v2)
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Total Q&A: 45 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the
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A. Promotion of self-service.
B. Ability to consume information in a variety of formats, languages, and devices.
C. Consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire
organization.
D. Ability to build and automate business processes.
Answer: D

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A. Compliance
B. Business analytics
C. Mobility solutions
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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B. How do you identify outliers in your business?
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B. Unified workspace for all users.
C. Mobile support for all functionality.
D. Ad hoc reporting capabilities.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: M2090-643
Exam Name: IBM (Information Management Solution Sales Mastery Test v4 )
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Total Q&A: 37 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A customer currently has petabytes of data across heterogeneous sources. They want
IBM to design a
solution to extract that data and store it in a centralized database that supports mining,
cubing, and
analytics processes. They also want to improve the quality of their data by creating common
data models
and consolidating duplicate records. Which IBM product is NOT a necessary component in
the solution?
A. IBM InfoSphere Information Server
B. IBM InfoSphere Guardium
C. IBM InfoSphere Warehouse
D. IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management
Answer: B

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NO.2 A customer is looking for a software solution to extract data from heterogeneous
sources, transform the
data to meet operational standards, and then load the data into their warehouse. Which IBM
offering best
meets their needs?
A. IBM InfoSphere Warehouse
B. IBM InfoSphere Information Server
C. IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management
D. IBM InfoSphere Optim
Answer: A

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NO.3 What are two analytics capabilities of IBM InfoSphere Warehouse?
A. statistical visualization and reporting
B. dashboards and scorecards
C. cubing services and text mining
D. what-if and scenario modeling
Answer: C

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NO.4 IBM IMS is designed for large-scale applications running on which operating system.?
A. AIX
B. Solaris
C. IBM i
D. z/OS
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which customer challenge is most directly addressed by the Define and Govern facet
of the IBM
Information Agenda?
A. inflexible infrastructure
B. information not viewed as an asset
C. lack of business/IT alignment
D. lack of organizational awareness
Answer: D

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Exam Code: P2050-004
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Order Mgmt Technical Mastery Test v1 )
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Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An Order can contain Order lines from:
A. Single channel , Single brand
B. Single channel , Multiple brand
C. Multiple channel , Multiple brand
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.2 How is the selection of a Warehouse or distribution centre or Store configured if not
specified during
order creation.?
A. Scheduling rules
B. Sourcing rules
C. Resource pool
D. Available to promise rules.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the approximate number of public APIs the IBM Sterling Platform has?
A. 500
B. 1000
C. 1500
D. 2000
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2180-270
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM Business Process Manager Advanced V7.5, Integration Development)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 An integration developer needs to rewrite business rule logic written in Java using a business rule
component. The integration developer has implemented the selector shown in the exhibits below.
What behavior will the integration developer observe with the configured selector?
A. The module will fail to compile because there is no wiring between the selector and the destination
components.
B. The module will fail to compile because the destination of the selector can only be rule logic or decision
table.
C. The runtime exception will be thrown because there is no default component configured.
D. The runtime exception will be thrown if the date when the selector is invoked does not fall in any of the
specified date ranges.
Answer: D

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NO.2 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
What should the integration developer consider when implementing this flow?
A. An Otherwise element must be added to the Choice activity.
B. A Timeout element must be added to the ReceiveChoice activity.
C. It is possible for Snippet1 and Snippet2 to run concurrently in the same instance of the process.
D. If Snippet1 is invoked in an instance of the process, that instance will not receive messages sent to the
Service2 interface.
Answer: D

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NO.3 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
Assume that max is greater than min. What should the integration developer take into account when
implementing this for each loop?
A. There must be an array associated with the for each loop.
B. It is possible to exit the loop before Index is equal to max.
C. The values of min and max cannot be changed once the for each activity begins.
D. If the scope inside of the for each activity is set to isolated, then the activities will run sequentially.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A client requires that a new BPEL process return a fault message to the requester in case the process
does not complete correctly. The integration developer has added a fault handler to the process to catch
all exceptions. How should the integration developer return the fault message?
A. Use a throw activity of a business fault.
B. Use a reply activity using a standard fault.
C. Use a reply activity using a business fault defined in the interface.
D. Use a rethrow activity in the fault handler on the process scope using a fault defined in the interface.
Answer: C

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NO.5 An integration developer is testing the process shown in the following exhibits.
If the integration developer starts an instance of the ProcessA process with an input of "HELLO", which of
the following strings will the LogSnippet snippet write to System.out?
A. output1=ORIGINAL :: aString=ORIGINAL
B. output1=ORIGINAL :: aString=MODIFIED
C. output1=MODIFIED :: aString=ORIGINAL
D. output1=MODIFIED :: aString=MODIFIED
Answer: C

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NO.6 An integration developer has configured a business state machine, as shown below:
What behavior will the integration developer observe when executing the flow?
A. If Condition3 is false, then Exit1 will execute after Timeout2 expires.
B. If Condition1 and Condition2 are both true, then a runtime exception will be thrown.
C. If Condition1 is false, then Timeout1 will not be evaluated.
D. If Condition1 and Condition2 are both false, then operation2 will be called by the business state
machine.
Answer: A

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NO.7 A business analyst has made several runtime changes to deployed business rules that were
implemented in IBM Integration Designer (IID). Which task should the integration developer perform so
that the rule group can be imported using IID, and the changes are reflected in the project source?
A. Use the administrative console to export the rule group.
B. Use the Business Rule Manager application to export the rule group.
C. Use the Business Rules widget in Business Space to export the rule group.
D. Use the Business Process Choreographer (BPC) Explorer to export the rule group information.
Answer: A

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NO.8 An integration developer has developed the following business process, as shown in the exhibit: The
invoke activities Invoke1 and Invoke2 are synchronous invocations and execute in a few seconds. A
compensation handler needs to be defined for Snippet2 following a business action from the customer.
The customer considers performance to be a key requirement. How would the integration developer
implement these requirements? The business process needs to be a:
A. long-running process because of the required fault handler.
B. long-running process because of the required compensation handler.
C. microflow because no human tasks are required.
D. microflow for best performance as every invoke activity uses synchronous invocation and executes
quickly.
Answer: B

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NO.9 An integration developer has configured a BPEL business process for a customer, as shown below:
What behavior will the integration developer observe when executing the flow?
A. It is possible for both Snippet2 and Snippet3 to execute.
B. The execution order of the links entering Snippet2 and Snippet3 has no impact on the process flow.
C. The gateway leading into Snippet5 will cause an error because the navigation behavior is not set
correctly.
D. The gateway leading into Snippet4 will cause an error because the link exiting Snippet2 has no
condition.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An integration developer needs to check which Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) events have been
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integration developer find this information?
A. In the Common Base Event browser application.
B. In the monitoring widgets in Business Space.
C. In the administrative console -> Service Integration -> Common Event Infrastructure -> Event Service
D. In the Business Process Choreographer Explorer -> Views tab -> Process Instances -> Events
generated
Answer: A

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Exam Code: A4040-120
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: Associate: IBM i 7.1 Administration)
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Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Programmers are having issues with the RPG compiler, and it has been determined
that a fix must be
ordered. Which type of PTF is most appropriate?
A. Fix groups
B. Service packs
C. Individual fixes
D. Cumulative PTF packages
Answer: C

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NO.2 User HOK tries to login and received the message "User profile cannot sign on." What
is the most likely
cause for the error?
A. The user's profile has been deleted.
B. The user's profile has been disabled.
C. The OMAXSIGN system value is set to 1.
D. The OMAXSGNACN system value is set to 1
Answer: D

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NO.3 An administrator plans to use a single LPAR and Management Central to manage
PTFs for other
systems in the enterprise. What is the most important consideration when deciding the
baseline.?
A. All systems are the same OS level.
B. All systems are at the same PTFGRP level
C. All systems are at the same test fix level.
D. All systems are at the same Cumulative level
Answer: A

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NO.4 IBM i provides the capability to use digital certificates to sign objects. What objects,
other than
Programs (*PGM). Service programs (*SRVPGM) and Modules (*MODULE) may be signed?
A. Libraries(*LIB)
SQL Packages (*SQLPKG)
B. Query definitions (*QRYDFN)
Journals (*JRN)
C. Populated save files (*FILE SAVF)
Commands (*CMD)
D. Message queues (*MSGQ)
Populated data Queues (*DTAQ)
E. Physical files (*FILE PF-DTA)
User Profiles (*USRPRF)
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the purpose of System Managed Access Path Protection (SMAPP)?
A. To prevent excessive I/O queuing when updating access paths
B. To automatically save file access data for security auditing
C. To improve application run time by providing ¯ sho rt cu
to data
D. To reduce recovery time by journaling changes in access path size and location
Answer: B

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Exam Code: C2020-701
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos TM1 10.1 Analyst)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A TM1 Application Web user has completed data input. Which action allows the user to lock the data for
review?
A. Commit
B. Save
C. Release ownership
D. Submit
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have imported a sales data Cognos Insight local cube. You have years, quarters, and months in
different dimensions. However, for your business requirements, it would be better to have a one-time
dimension.
How would you change your model?
A. Change the cube structure using the Group Dimension function.
B. Create a new cube using the Group Dimension function.
C. Change the cube structure using the Combine Dimension function.
D. Create a new cube using the Combine Dimension function.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Why would you use Rebuild over Recalc in an Active Form?
A. When a conditional format on a report changes
B. When metadata is added to the TM1 model that must be displayed on the row
C. When data changes along the rows of a report
D. When a leaf element is added to a consolidated element of a report
Answer: B

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NO.4 How do you configure a TM1 Web application so that users are not prompted for the TM1 Admin Host
every time they log in?
A. Modify the capability assignments in TM1 Architect.
B. Edit the pmpsvc_config.xml file.
C. Edit the web.config file.
D. Change security on the top-Level application folder from "private" to "public".
Answer: C

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NO.5 You have entered new planning data into a TM1 Model and all figures are blue. Which statement is
correct?
A. The numbers are in the base cube and need to be submitted before seen by others.
B. The numbers are in the base cube and need to be committed before seen by others.
C. The numbers are in a Personal Workspace and need to be committed before seen by others.
D. The numbers are in a Personal Workspace and need to be saved before seen by others.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You want to create TM1 Excel reports.
What are two methods to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Build from Excel directly
B. Use the Slice to Excel button
C. ExportCognos Insight report to Excel
D. Use the TM1 Excel wizard
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
In the Assumptions dimension all key figures are formatted correctly as shown in the exhibit, yet all values
are displayed as currency.
Where would you search for the currency format?
A. In the title dimensions
B. In the other row dimension
C. In the column dimensions
D. In the cube format
Answer: C

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NO.8 What are three reasons why you would use Cognos BI Reporting rather than TM1 Web? (Choose
three.)
A. You must merge data from different cube sources.
B. You require bursting of reports.
C. You require different report versions.
D. You require data entry capability.
E. You require highlight capability for reports.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 A company uses Excel workbooks to access IBM Cognos TM1 data over a wide area network. The
company needs to improve the performance of their Excel workbooks which contain multiple slices from
multiple TM1 cubes.
Which two changes will improve performance.? (Choose two.)
A. Convert all DBR() functions to DBRW() functions.
B. Make all DBRW() functions reference a single VIEW function.
C. Convert all DBRA() functions to DBRW() functions.
D. Convert all DBRW() functions to DBR() functions.
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 What must a TM1 Application Web user do to perform what-if analysis on budget amounts, without
affecting the current version of the data?
A. Export to Cognos Insight.
B. Create a Sandbox.
C. Slice to Excel.
D. Create a scenario.
Answer: B

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Exam Code: A2150-196
Exam Name: IBM (Assess: IBM Security QRadar SIEM V7.1 Implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 122 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-23

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NO.1 Which log file contains all of the relevant logging data for IBM Security Qradar SIEM V7.1?
A. /var/Iog/qradar.txt
B. /var/Iog/qradar.log
C. /var/Iog/messages
D. /var/Iog/qradar.error
Answer: B

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NO.2 What must be done to obtain a token for an Authorized Service for WinCollect?
A. Select Authorized Service under the WinCollect plug-in
B. Add the service as an Authorized Service in the Admin tab
C. Go to System and License Management and add an Authorized Service
D. Go to Console Settings and add the already configured WinCollect as an Authorized Service
Answer: B

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NO.3 What are false positive rules?
A. Rules that create offenses that the user should ignore.
B. Rules that have matched could severely impact the environment.
C. Rules that make use of the tests relation And Not. The test that follows this relation, if positively
matched, will be negated and evaluated as not matched.
D. They are mostly made out of building blocks and filtered out events or flows from the Correlation
Rule Engine pipeline using selection criteria that deem the matching events or flows should not
contribute to an offense.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a best practice when creating users and assigning roles?
A. For one-off user creation or for a quick task, assign a user to the Admin role.
B. Create a role for each user to make it easy to manage an individual's permissions.
C. To make user management less time-consuming, create general user accounts with broad to
specific permissions that can be shared between staff.
D. Group users with like duties together and create roles with permissions that satisfy their business
requirements; create roles for individuals only in cases of a special permission requirement.
Answer: D

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NO.5 On the Index Management page, what does the value of the Data Written column represent?
A. The total amount of data the indexer has processed.
B. The total amount of data consumed on disk by the index.
C. The amount of data the indexer processed during the selected time range.
D. The amount of data consumed on the disk by the index during the selected time range.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which infrastructure components must be present before installing any of the virtual
appliances?
A. VMware ESX 3.7 with VMware vSphere client 3.9 fix pack 12
B. VMware ESXi 4.0.8 with VMware Workstation 9.0 installed on the desktop
C. VMware ESXi 4.1 with VMware vSphere client 4.1 installed on the desktop
D. VMware Workstation 8.0.4 or above with VMware vSphere client 4.0 installed on the desktop
Answer: C

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NO.7 What will happen when a user sets a search as default?
A. The search will be set as the user's default search.
B. All IBM Securily Qradar SIEM V7.1 (QRadar) users will have that search set as their default search.
C. QRadar users will be able to select that search as their default from a list of searches.
D. Only users with permission to view the data in the search results will see the search as an option.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which connection type to the console is required to run qchange_netsetup?
A. Local
B. SSH
C. RDP
D. Telnet
Answer: A

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