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Exam Code: HP0-M25
Exam Name: HP (Assessing Web Application Security )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 105 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which tool will you use to create a filter that can help identify every instance of a 302 redirection while
browsing the web application?
A.Web Proxy
B.SQL Injector
C.HTTP Injector
D.Web Browser
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which policy focuses on auditing the functionality of the Web Application only?
A.Standard policy
B.Application policy
C.Web Service policy
D.Web Application policy
Answer:B

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NO.3 Which macro option will play and then start the scan off at its last recorded session, and none of the
earlier sessions will be crawled and audited?
A.Start Macro
B.Login Macro
C.Logout Macro
D.Use macro for entry
Answer:D

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NO.4 What is the difference between a Login Macro and a Start Macro? Select two.
A.The Start Macro will run any time state needs to be re-established.
B.The Start Macro is used to populate the assessment with known URLs.
C.The Login Macro runs any time a page response matches its logout signature.
D.The Login Macro only runs once to gain session state at the beginning of the assessment.
E.The Start Macro is the Login Macro being forced to run once at the beginning of the assessment.
Answer:B C

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NO.5 Which regular expression best matches the string 345-12-9876?
A.\d
B.\d*.$
C.\d{3-2-4}
D.\d{3}-\d{2}-\d{4}
Answer:D

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NO.6 After completing a Crawl-Only scan and clicking on the Audit button, which scan policy will be used?
A.the policy selected by the user on-screen
B.the policy listed in the Default Scan Settings
C.the policy specified in the Application Settings
D.the policy specified in the Current Scan Settings
Answer:A

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NO.7 What is a logout signature?
A.a snapshot of the session state found when the user has lost session state
B.a regular expression used to identify those responses that indicate session state has been lost
C.the toolbar feature in Web Macro Recorder which automatically determines the macros regular
expression
D.a user-supplied keyword that will be inserted into the WebInspect scan data to indicate each response
where a logout occurred
Answer:B

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NO.8 In the WebInspect GUI, where can you find a full description of a discovered vulnerability?
A.within the Host info
B.within the Session info
C.within the Summary pane
D.within the Compliance Manager
Answer:B

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NO.9 By default, what are the three response codes that would halt a scan on the first request?
A.404, 407, 502
B.200, 302, 404
C.304, 302, 500
D.403, 404, 500
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which statement best describes the Request Retry Count function?
A.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait for a response.
B.The Request Retry Count indicates how long to wait before re-requesting the same, non-responsive
page.
C.The Request Retry Count indicates how many times to attempt a request before marking it as a null
response.
D.The Request Retry Count indicates how much time WebInspect will spend on a request before marking
the requested page as a null response.
Answer:C

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NO.11 What are some uses of regular expressions in WebInspect? Select two.
A.They are used for response filtering and may be customized.
B.They are used for filtering the vulnerabilities in the Dashboard.
C.They are used for detecting the logout signature in a Login Macro.
D.They are used for defect reporting when WebInspect is linked to Quality Center.
E.They are used to group vulnerabilities in the Vulnerabilities tab in the Summary pane.
Answer:A C

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NO.12 Which statement best describes the role of the "Web Form Values" file?
A.The WebForm Values file is part of the standard policy.
B.The WebForm Values file is generated during a scan to capture test parameters used during the scan.
C.The WebForm Values file contains parameter names and provides static values to be submitted when
testing webforms.
D.The WebForm Values file is used to establish and maintain "state" with the application by monitoring
webform authentication methods.
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which option best describes a Manual Crawl (Step Mode) scan?
A.This scan spiders the website, discovering all links and pages therein.
B.This scan forces the user to provide all of the site pages by hand via their browser while the audit
performs attacks.
C.This scan discovers links/pages while attacking the same pages, running with multiple threads. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
D.This scan fully discovers the site structure first, followed by a phase of attacks of the same pages. A
recursion setting allows new items discovered in the attack phase to be spidered further.
Answer:B

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NO.14 What are the Network Authentication techniques supported by WebInspect? (Select three.)
A.NTLM
B.Kerberos
C.htaccess
D.Cybersafe
E.HTTP Basic
F.Retinal Scan
Answer:A B E

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NO.15 Which is a valid option for Log File Purge settings under Application Settings?
A.Purge When Exit
B.By Total Scan Size
C.By Log File Number
D.Purge on SmartUpdate
Answer:C

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NO.16 Which tool is used to create and edit the Web Form Values file?
A.HTML Editor
B.HTTP Editor
C.Web Form Editor
D.WebInspect Form Wizard
Answer:C

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NO.17 How do you promote vulnerabilities into defect tracking in Quality Center?
A.Use AMP integration.
B.Use the WebInspect Command Line utility.
C.Click the Quality Center icon on the toolbar.
D.Right-click the vulnerability in the Vulnerability Pane.
Answer:D

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NO.18 Which statement best describes SmartUpdate?
A.SmartUpdate is the process that delivers WebInspect Messages to the bottom of the Home tab.
B.SmartUpdate is the feature that sends False Positives (FP) to the HP Support team as quality feedback.
C.SmartUpdate is a process that retrieves updates to the local vulnerability database and any
WebInspect binary updates.
D.SmartUpdate automatically omits security checks whose specified server/application type does not
match the current targets server/application fingerprint.
Answer:C

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NO.19 Click the Task button. Match the tools listed in the blue boxes beside the correct purpose. When
finished, click the Done button to submit your answer. Answer & Explanation Correct Answer
Explanations No more information available
Answer:

NO.20 How do you initiate the WebInspect Command Line?
A.via the wi.exe program
B.via the WebInspect toolkit
C.via the scheduler.exe program
D.via the Advanced Assessment panel
Answer:A

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Exam Code: HP0-J33
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 How do you access the web-based operator control panel after installing CommandView EVA on the
management module?
A. https://<storagesystem>:2373
B. https://<storagesystem>:2372
C. https://<storagesystem>:2301
D. https://<storagesystem>:2381
Answer: A

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NO.2 What must be considered when configuring the Internet Protocol settings of an EVA4400
management module?
A. The WOCP requires an IPv6 network.
B. The IP address range is restricted.
C. A limited set of protocols is supported.
D. The localhost alias must be disabled.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You create a Vraid0 LUN in an EVA with 16 disks consisting of two 8-drive RSS sets. What will happen
if a single disk fails?
A. The LUN will fail even with an RSS configured.
B. The LUN will continue to operate normally due to the redundancy provided by the RSS sets.
C. The LUN cannot be configured across two RSS sets.
D. The LUN will continue to operate at reduced performance while the RSS sets rebuild the lost data.
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the source of the identifying data that is inserted into the HP CommandView EVA SNMP MIB
when it is generated?
A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which components are mandatory Customer Self Repair (CSR) on an EVA4400, EVA6400 or
EVA8400 device shelf? (Select three.)
A. midplane
B. power supply
C. fan
D. backplane
E. disk drive
F. power UID board
Answer: BCE

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NO.6 Which feature is unique to the EVA4400 compared to the EVA6400 and EVA8400?
A. support of 2048 LUNs
B. use of array-based management
C. RoHS 6 of 6 compliant disk shelves
D. large LUN support
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which service is included in the EVA6400/8400 warranty?
A. HP Support Plus service
B. HP EVA Firmware Upgrade service
C. HP Implementation service
D. HP Installation & Startup service
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which interface is used to connect a FATA drive to an EVA controller? (Select two.)
A. single port
B. dual port
C. Serial ATA
D. Native Fibre Channel
E. Parallel ATA
Answer: BD

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NO.9 Which statements are true about using thin provisioning in an EVA environment? (Select two.)
A. Extension of a LUN cannot be automated.
B. Capacity utilization is increased.
C. LUN shrink is not always supported for EVA.
D. Host agents must be installed on servers.
E. It can be performed within CommandView EVA.
Answer: BD

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NO.10 for the HP EVA, where do you find error messages, status code values, meanings, and appropriate
corrective actions?
A. product replacement instructions
B. WEBES System Event Analyzer
C. product user guide
D. HP CommandView EVA
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other
EVA array models?
A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves
Answer: A

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NO.12 What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an
EVA to single?
A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which interconnect technology is used when integrating the mpx110 router into an EVA solution?
A. FCIP
B. FICON
C. iSCSI
D. WDM
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)
A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization
Answer: DE

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NO.15 What is a physical segment (PSEG) in the EVA context?
A. smallest virtual disk space allocated on a disk drive
B. smallest physical disk space allocated on a disk drive
C. disk space containing information about the selected redundancy level of the virtual disk
D. data portion read from or written to a physical disk before the next physical disk is accessed
Answer: B

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NO.16 A disk group is set to double protection level and contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens
when there is simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same
Redundant Storage Set?
A. The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
B. Vraid1 data migrate to Vraid5.
C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What are functions of the web-based operator control panel of an EVA4400? (Select three.)
A. view OCP log messages
B. configure SMI-S credentials
C. restart a controller
D. perform disk firmware upgrade
E. enter WWN to initialize system
F. perform array firmware upgrade
Answer: ACE

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NO.18 What are required customer self-repair (replacement) parts in an EVA6400/8400? (Select two.)
A. controller cache battery
B. controller cache memory
C. hard disk drives
D. disk enclosure fan
E. Fibre Channel transceivers
Answer: CD

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NO.19 How does releveling occur after the loss of one disk in a 16-member group containing ten 10GB
Vraid1 Vdisks?
A. The group does not need to relevel.
B. across 16 disks in the group
C. across 15 disks in the group
D. across 14 disks in the group
E. across 10 disks in the group
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which statements are true about mirrorclones? (Select two.)
A. If the mirrorclone is in a normalized state, you can only detach it.
B. The redundancy (Vraid) level of a mirrorclone must be the same or higher than the source.
C. Amirrorclone delta restore may be made when the mirrorclone source is also the source for a DR
group.
D. A detached mirrorclone cannot be reattached to its source.
E. HP recommends keeping mirrorclones in the same disk group as the source.
Answer: CD

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Exam Code: HP0-606
Exam Name: HP (Data Protector Basics for Windows)
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Total Q&A: 180 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 .To use he same device with different media pools several must be created.
A. media agents
B. media specifications
C. backup specifications
D. media rotation policies
Answer: C

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NO.2 .Which type of media management service facilities communication among applications, robotic
changers and media libraries for NT systems?
A. Recovery Manager
B. Remote Control
C. Removable Storage Manager
D. Session Manager Binary Files
Answer: C

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NO.3 .What are the two main purposes for a media pool?
A. media condition and usage
B. logical organization and policies
C. physical description and location
D. to keep track of full backups and incremental backups
Answer: B

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NO.4 .The Data Protector user account and its service MUST have permission to access the remote
computer and permission on the Disk Agent client.
A. IP
B. Inet
C. Ipnet
D. Destination
Answer: B

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NO.5 .What are the three main media management PROTECTION features?
A. labeling, duplication and condition monitoring
B. media pool media usage and property specifications
C. on-line catalog media organization, and location tracking
D. logical organization of media, pools and allocation policies
Answer: A

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NO.6 .When backing up over a SAN Data Protector can be configured with a SCSI Library so that each client
system has its' own access to library robotics and drives. This is called .
A. device sharing
B. SAN library access
C. direct library access
D. multi-drive library sharing
Answer: C

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NO.7 .The Media Management Database (MMDB) and Catalog Database (CDB) parts are implemented
using an embedded database consisting of tablespaces. All the changes to the MMDB and CDB are
updated using .
A. binary files
B. direct access
C. transaction logs
D. session messages
Answer: C

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NO.8 .What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify filesystem objects in the database?
A. device filenames and hostname
B. filenames mountpoint, and device
C. hostname mountpoint, and description
D. hostname device, and rawdisk sections
Answer: C

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NO.9 .The Data Protector database on the Windows Cell Manager stores information on about file names.
A. 100 million
B. 200 million
C. 450 million
D. 700 million
Answer: C

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NO.10 .Data Protector security is based on .
A. cells
B. clients
C. devices
D. sessions
Answer: A

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NO.11 .What are the three main media management library features?
A. labeling, duplication, and condition monitoring
B. media pool media usage, and property specifications
C. on-line catalog media organization and location tracking
D. logical organization of media pools and allocation policies
Answer: C

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NO.12 .Which data flow pattern describes the way Data Protector handles a network datastream?
A. Disk-> Device
B. Disk -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
C. Disk -V Source Device -> Network -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
D. Disk -> Memory of Source System -> Network -> Memory of Destination System -> Device
Answer: D

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NO.13 .Once the Manager-of-Manager has been configured, Data Protector cells can be added with the
function.
A. install
B. import
C. add cells
D. configure
Answer: B

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NO.14 .What tracks the elapsed times of key operations and registers this data collection as well as volume
data within Data Protector?
A. Cost Recovery
B. Service Monitoring
C. HP Open View Operations
D. Application Response Measurement (ARM)
Answer: D

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NO.15 .What determines the amount of detail on files and directories written to the Data Protector database?
A. disk quota
B. logging level
C. load balancing
D. information store
Answer: B

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NO.16 .Which information does the Catalog Database (CDB) store?
A. file version information
B. backup and restore sessions
C. configured devices and media pools
D. the number of sessions performed for a given time
Answer: B

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NO.17 .The Data Protector encode object option used for encryption uses a simple algorithm implemented in
a shared "C" program library.
A. XOR
B. XNOT
C. XORD
D. XNAND
Answer: A

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NO.18 .Which data flow pattern describes the way Data Protector handles local datastream?
A. Disk -> Device
B. Disk -> Memory -> Device
C. Disk -> Memory -> Network -> Device
D. Disk -> Memory -> Destination Device
Answer: B

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NO.19 .On HP Disk Arrays only - a local mirror, where both disks are in he same array Data Protector
integration uses
A. Control Unit
B. Business Copy
C. Continuous Access
D. Logical Volume Manager
Answer: B

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NO.20 .Which function allows checking to see if the Data Protector data on a specified medium is readable?
A. verify
B. modify
C. specify
D. reinitialize
Answer: A

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NO.21 .What does Data Protector use for Inter-Process Communication (IPC)?
A. global
B. remote
C. port 5555
D. shared memory + pipe/socket
Answer: D

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NO.22 .Media can only be exported if the protection of the sessions has expired or a has been performed.
A. verify
B. recycle
C. re-scan
D. reinitialize
Answer: B

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NO.23 .What feature of Data Protector dynamically determines which object (disk) should be backed up to
which device?
A. disk image
B. compression
C. load balancing
D. object distribution
Answer: C

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NO.24 .What is the default for that Data Protector uses on all clients for communication?
A. 5050
B. 5057
C. 5555
D. 5557
Answer: C

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NO.25 .All catalog information of data written to media is stored in specific if appropriate logging option is
selected.
A. Detail Catalog (DC)
B. Backup Control System (BCS)
C. Detail Catalog Binary Files (DCBF)
D. Media Management Database (MMDB)
Answer: C

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NO.26 .The System Recovery Dat afile is automatically written two times. It is written once when backing up
and another time when backing up
A. the filesystem. individual files
B. replacement files. directory trees
C. a CRITICAL object; Data Protector internal database
D. the CONFIGURATION object; the Data Protector internal database
Answer: D

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NO.27 .What lets logical volumes be mounted as disk drives?
A. domain ports
B. aparse points
C. eeparse points
D. object connect
Answer: C

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NO.28 .What service runs on each Windows system in the Data Protector cell and is responsible for
communication between the systems in the cell?
A. Omnilnet
B. Cell Request Server (CRS)
C. Raima Database Server (RDS)
D. Media Management Daemon (MMD)
Answer: A

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NO.29 .The default installation of Data Protector includes an automatic database purge that runs every day at .
A. 12.00
B. 15.00
C. 22.00
D. 00.00
Answer: A

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NO.30 .What process/service runs on the Data Protector cell manager. It starts and controls backup and
restore sessions.
A. Omnilnet
B. Cell Request Server CRS)
C. Raima Database Server (RDS)
D. Media Management Daemon (MMD)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J34
Exam Name: HP (Implementing MSA Storage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 289 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which data protection capabilities does the MSA2012i array provide? (Select two.)
A. up to 255 snapshots
B. up to 255 volume copies
C. 128 volume copies
D. 128 snapshots
E. 64 volume copies
F. 64 snapshots
Answer: CF

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NO.2 A customer has an MSA2324fc with dual controllers. What is required when adding an MSA70 drive
enclosure to this configuration?
A. dual I/O modules on MSA controllers
B. a dual domain I/O module option
C. two additional miniSAS to miniSAS cables
D. a minimum of 16 dual-ported SAS drives
Answer: B

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NO.3 The HP StorageWorks MSA2000 Family Storage Management Utility is used to manage which
components?
A. drive modules and virtual disks
B. disk groups and virtual disks
C. master volumes and replication groups
D. pre-fetch cache and disks
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement is true about the MSA Storage Management Utility?
A. It is only located on the master MSA controller module.
B. It resides on any server connected to the SAN.
C. It resides on the SAN management server.
D. It is located on either of the MSA controller modules.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which key benefits does the MSA2012fc provide? (Select two.)
A. clone and snapshot capability
B. ability to mix disk drives of different sizes in a virtual RAID set without capacity loss
C. flexible drive types and sizes
D. controller-based replication capability
E. support for dual-ported SATA disk drives
Answer: AC

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NO.6 Which MSA model allows you to connect to up to 64 hosts?
A. MSA2012sa
B. MSA2000i
C. MSA2000fc
D. MSA2000sa
Answer: C

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NO.7 What are valid hardware capabilities of the MSA2000? (Select two.)
A. snapshots on MSA2000fc only
B. data replication between arrays
C. clones on any MSA2000
D. SAS backend bus
E. tri-port SATA drives for high availability
Answer: CD

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NO.8 In addition to using the WBI or CLI, how can you set the date and time on an MSA2324fc G2 solution?
A. by issuing the set controller-ntp enabled command through CLI
B. b y issuing the set controller-time command through CLI
C. automatically as soon as the first host is connected
D. b y configuring the system to use Network Time Protocol (NTP)
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which array-head chassis for the MSA2000fc G2 has 24 drive bays?
A. large form factor chassis
B. medium form factor chassis
C. s mall form factor chassis
D. high density form factor chassis
Answer: C

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NO.10 Several different methods are used to protect data. One method uses snapshots. What is an accurate
description of a snapshot?
A. source independent physical image of a volume
B. logical copy of a volume on another controller
C. remote copy of a volume on another storage array
D. source dependent logical image of a volume
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-K09
Exam Name: HP (Supporting MSL2024 and MSL4048 Tape Libraries)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 94 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which scheme reflects the slot numbering of an MSL2024 Tape Library?
A. vertical columns from top to bottom, starting at the rear
B. vertical columns from bottom to top, starting at the front
C. horizontal rows from rear to front, starting at the top row
D. horizontal rows from front to rear, starting at the bottom row
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the recommended maximum number of Ultrium 448 drives per SCSI bus when connected to an
ULTRA320 HBA?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which host interfaces (HBA) can be used for the tape drives of MSL2024 and MSL4048 Tape Libraries?
(Select two.)
A. Ultra 320 SCSI for the Ultrium 448 SCSI tape drive
B. Ultra 320 SCSI for the Ultrium 960 SCSI tape drive
C. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel HBA for the Native Fibre Channel Ultrium 960 tape drive
D. 1Gb/s Fibre Channel HBA for the Native Fibre Channel Ultrium 960 tape drive
E. 2Gb/s Fibre Channel HBA for the Native Fibre Channel Ultrium 960 tape drive
Answer: AB

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of drives the MSL4048 can support? (Select two.)
A. 2 Ultrium 960 tape drives
B. 4 Ultrium 960 tape drives
C. 4 Ultrium 448 tape drives
D. 2 Ultrium 448 tape drives
E. 2 Ultrium 448 tape drives and 1 Ultrium 960 tape drive in mixed configuration
Answer: AC

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NO.5 Which featuresare used bythe LTO Ultrium tape family? (Select three.)
A. cartridge memory
B. global storage link
C. adaptive tape speed
D. adaptive compression
E. adaptive cleaning heads
F. media recognition system
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 Which SCSI signaling is supported with the MSL2024 and MSL4048 Tape Libraries? (Select two.)
A. SE (single ended)
B. SAS (serial attached SCSI)
C. LVI (low voltage incremental)
D. LVD (low voltage differential)
E. HVD (high voltage differential)
Answer: BD

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NO.7 What is the maximum cable length on an LVD SCSI bus?
A. 9.84 ft (3 m)
B. 19.68 ft (6 m)
C. 39.37 ft (12 m)
D. 82.02 ft (25 m)
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are connecting an MSL2024 or MSL4048 library to a Fibre Channel SAN. Which statement is
correct?
A. One host only can have access to the tape devices.
B. Each tape device can be accessed by only one host.
C. All hosts can have shared access to the tape devices.
D. Only hosts with HP Data Protector installed can share tape devices.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which tape drive format uses helical scan technology?
A. AIT
B. SDLT
C. LTO-3
D. Travan
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the maximum native storage capacity of the MSL4048 Tape Library with an Ultrium 960 drive
and
all media slots loaded?
A. 9.6 TB
B. 19.2 TB
C. 24.0 TB
D. 36TB
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-J35
Exam Name: HP (HP Data Protector software Application Integration-Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 55 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which filesystem is supported for the backup of VSS writers?
A. NTFS
B. DFSR
C. NDMP
D. CIFS
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should be considered when SAP/R3 is backed up using backint?
A. BRBACKUP cannot be used to back up SAP/R3.
B. It is impossible to perform incremental backups.
C. The backup objects must be manually propagated to the internal database.
D. Hot database backup cannot be performed on the data files.
Answer: B

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NO.3 How do you back up Microsoft Exchange databases within a storage group?
A. sequentially
B. oldest files first
C. in parallel
D. longest filenames first
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of devices used in a backup session for Microsoft Exchange?
A. one for the complete backup specification
B. equal to the number of databases within a storage group
C. equal to the number of storage groups
D. unlimited, as the storage group can be sub-divided into many objects
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the primary function of an application integration agent?
A. offline backup
B. synthetic full backup
C. hot database backup
D. split mirror backup
Answer: C

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Exam Code: Hp2-E24
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Profession)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business
needs?
A. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24¡Á7
B. Next Day Onsite
C. Next Day Exchange
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9¡Á5
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which approximate fraction of all customer helpdesk calls relates to commercial printers?
A. more than 75%
B. up to 50%
C. less than 10%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: D

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NO.3 Your HP ProLiant customer is looking for a single solution for hardware and openrating system
technical support services. Which HP Care Pack categories provide hardware and O/S
techinal support services in one part number? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24
B. Hardware Services 6-Hour Call to Repair On-site Service
C. Installation & Start-up Services
D. Support Plus
E. Hardware Services On-site Service
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which feature do HP Care Pack service offers provide?
A. hardware and software maintenance
B. hardware maintenance only
C. software maintenance only
D. parts-only coverage
Answer: A

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NO.5 Your customer owns HP ProCurve Network Management software. How long are maintenance
releases available at no additional cost?
A. for as long as the customer owns the product
B. for one year, starting at the date of the purchase
C. for a period of 90 days
D. until the next version is released
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which area in covered if we sell improvement of timeliness of problem resolutions?
A. increase IT quality
B. improve agility
C. mitigate risk
D. manage costs
Answer: D

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NO.7 Travel Next Business Day response HP Care Pack service provides mobiles computer users
with a support solution for HP Notebook products. Where can it be claimed?
A. in listed countries across all regions
B. in the country where the notebook was purchased
C. in EMEA
D. in the region where the notebook was purchased
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Data Center Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Critical Service
Answer: B

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NO.9 Why is it more effective to purchase an HP Care Pack support service than to purchase extra
printers in case of failure? (Select two.)
A. It reduces uncontrolled internal cost for logistic, installation, follow-up.
B. New printers imply new settings for the users.
C. Internal batteries may discharge while on shelf.
D. A printer should be installed only by an HP certified service technician.
E. HP printers cannot be moved once they are operational.
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your
customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two)
A. operation and 9¡Á5softerware support verification
B. coordination of network installation and start-upactivitises
C. configuration download
D. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
E. building the configurationfile
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 Which services should be quoted by default with each storge platform that does not include
bundled sercices? (Select two.)
A. 1-year HP Care Pack
B. HP Proactive Service
C. HP Installation and Startup Service
D. 3-year HP Care pack
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Which value do HP services provide to the customers in addition to the warranty?
A. increased product reliability
B. advanced ormore timely response
C. free phone access numbers
D. 4-hour call-to-repair commitment
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which service provides the most complete range of deliverables?
A. 6-hour Call-to-Repair
B. 4-hour 24¡Á7
C. Proactive 24
D. Next Business Day on-site
Answer: C

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NO.14 What prevents a 5-year HP Care Pack from usage as a post-warranty Care Pack？
A. The 5-year HP Care Packcan not be registered after the standard warranty period has
expired.
B. The maximum Care Pack lifetime is three years.
C. Post-warranty service requires individual contracts.
D. The main warranty is threeyears, consequently a 2-year Care Pack is required.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which lifetime warranty level is included when selling an HP ProCurve 2910aI-24G Switch?
A. Next-Business-Day
B. Onsite-Parts-Exchange
C. SupportPlus
D. SupportPlus 24
Answer: A

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Exam Code: Hp2-E29
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP SMB Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 166 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which HP software application is required to manage an HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array
solution?
A. HPStorageWorks Secure Manager
B. HPStorageWorks Command View EVA
C. HP Storage Essentials SRM Software Suite
D. HP Continuous Access EVA
Answer: B

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3.Which component in an HP Data Protector solution runs the core software and contains the Data
Protector database?
A. media server
B. console server
C. cell manager
D. media manager
Answer: C

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4.A customer wants to use HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) to secure their management
environment. Which technologies are used with HP SIM accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. SSL
B. WMI
C. DMI
D. SNMP
E. SSH
Answer: A,B

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5.When a G6 blade solution includes Flex-10 Virtual Connect Ethernet modules, what are possible
bandwidth configurations for a single Flex-NIC on port 1? (Select two.)
A. 10Mb
B. 300Mb
C. 750Mb
D. 8Gb
E. 16Gb
Answer: B,D

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6.Which feature becomes available when a G6 blade solution includes Flex-10 Virtual Connect Ethernet
module?
A. support for port aggregation for each blade increases to 10 ports
B. blade NICs auto-negotiate to 10/100Mb bandwidth
C. embedded Flexible NICs for each blade increases to 10 NICs
D. bandwidth for each network card can be dynamically changed from 100Mb up to 10Gb
Answer: D

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7.A customer wants to order several ProLiant servers as virtual machine hosts. Which HP iVirtualization
solutions are available to the customer? (Select two.)
A. Red Hat Linux Enterprise Server
B. VMware ESX 4i
C. CitrixXenServer
D. VMware Server
E. Microsoft Windows Virtual Server 2005
F. Microsoft Virtual Hyper-V
Answer: B,C

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8.Which statement is true about processor cache?
A. it reduces the risk of downtime.
B. It enables floating point processing.
C. It reduces the amount of time needed for the processor to access data.
D. it reduces risk of data loss.
Answer: C

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9.Which RAID level is able to withstand any two simultaneous hard drive failures?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 1+0
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: C

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10.Which feature included in the firmware of D2D Backup System eliminates redundant data during
backups by saving a single copy of identical data, replacing any further instance with pointers back to the
one copy?
A. dynamic reallocation
B. data retention
C. deduplication
D. low bandwidth replication
Answer: C

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11.Which ProLiant servers have a maximum of four processor sockets? (Select two.)
A. ML370
B. BL860c
C. DL585
D. BL680C
E. DL785
Answer: D,E

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12.Which component from HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiant can be used for array configuration
and guided installation of the supported operating system?
A. SmartStart CD
B. Management DVD
C. Firmware Maintenance CD
D. Insight Software DVD
Answer: A

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13.What additional functionality does HP Insight Remote Support provide to customers using HP SIM?
(Select two.)
A. remote event notification and forwarding
B. integrated warranty tracking and online remote support
C. remote configuration and repair of management agents
D. integration with HP Insight License Manager
E. remoteiLO 2 graphical console access
Answer: A,B

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14.Your customer is consolidating his environment on four ProLiant servers running VMware ESX 4.0.
Which HP insight Control functionality can help him to convert physical machines to a virtual machine
form on ESX 4.0 servers?
A. performance management
B. server deployment
C. server migration
D. virtual machine management
Answer: C

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15.Which Insight Control component identifies and prevents potentially critical problems on ProLiant
servers by providing real-time hardware event monitoring and secure event submission to HP Support?
A. HP Software Event Subscription
B. HP Insight Performance Manager module
C. Version Control Repository and Version Control Agent
D. HP Insight Remote Support
Answer: D

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16.What does Dynamic Processor Resilience enhance?
A. data security
B. server availability
C. fast clustering failover
D. floating point performance
Answer: B

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17.Which tape technology allows hardware-based encryption?
A. HP SuperDLTtape II 600GB
B. DLTVS160
C. SDLT600
D. LTO-4
Answer: D

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18.Which HP disk-based storage solution provides both unattended backups and rapid restore of data for
LAN-based servers, and can also emulate popular tape libraries tape drives?
A. HP Virtual Library System (VLS)
B. HP Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA)
C. HP Modular Smart Array (MSA) 2000 G2
D. Removable Disk Backup System (RDX)
Answer: A

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19.What enables resiliency in an HP Converged Infastructure? (Select two.)
A. power, cooling, and interconnect capabilities of the HPBiadeSystem c3000 enclosure
B. visualization products like VMware or Microsoft Hyper-V solutions
C. HPStorageWorks data protection solutions
D. modular building blocks providing maximum flexibility for scalability and customization
E. HP Insight Software components with appropriate services
Answer: D,E

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20.Which HP software component can be used to install multiple ProLiant servers quickly and predictably
in an unattended fashion using scripts and systems images?
A. HP Remote Deployment Utility
B. HPIgnite-UX
C. HP Server Migration Software forProLiant servers
D. HP Insight Rapid Deployment software
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-K16
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP StorageWorks XP Disk Arrays)
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Total Q&A: 64 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which Adaptive Infrastructure key enabler allows customers to shift the focus of their human resources
from maintenance-related tasks to more strategic or innovative requirements?
A. security
B. automation
C. virtualization
D. power and cooling
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which term describes how business technology results are measured?
A. reduced costs
B. strategic growth
C. business enablers
D. business outcomes
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer wants to discuss the industry trend toward organizations developing a 24 x 7 lights-out data
center. Which HP business technology strategy addresses this trend?
A. Grid Computing
B. Adaptive Infrastructure
C. Business Information Optimization
D. Business Technology Optimization
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which HP Adaptive Infrastructure enabler aggregates physical resources, and presents those
resources as capabilities that can be used by applications, desktop clients, or other types of storage
clients?
A. automation
B. virtualization
C. management
D. IT systems and services
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which HP StorageWorks Disk Array software shifts most of the replication workload to the remote site,
reducing resource consumption on the primary storage system and improving production application
performance?
A. XP External Storage
B. XP Replication Monitor
C. XP Continuous Access Journal
D. XP Continuous Access Asynchronous
Answer: C

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