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Exam Code: HP0-W03
Exam Name: HP (Advanced SAN Architeture)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 Which task must be performed prior to starting a merging process between two switches?
(Select two.)
A.Remove duplicated domain IDs.
B.Set port speed of ISL ports to a fixed value.
C.Disable zoning configuration on both switches.
D.Enable the same passwords on both switches.
E.Check to see if the same feature licenses are installed.
Correct:A E

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NO.2 Which zoning type must be used in a heterogeneous fabric with M-Series and B-Series switches?
A.VSAN zoning
B.name server zoning
C.fabric address zoning
D.domain-port-area zoning
Correct:B

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NO.3 Click the Task button. Match the appropriate migration path to the given SAN topologies by
dragging and dropping the boxes. Click the Exhibit button for instructions on how to complete
drag and drop items.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1

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NO.4 During the SAN architecture process, the SAN architect must explain to the stakeholders how
the new infrastructure will be realized. Which information should this explanation contain?
A.options that can be installed at a later time
B.current SAN components that will be utilized
C.details about storage and SAN management
D.overview of HP multivendor support services
Correct:B

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NO.5 What are typical consequences of insufficient knowledge transfer to the customer for their SAN
environment? (Select two.)
A.unused bandwidth
B.wasted disk space
C.management errors
D.event misinterpretation
E.unnecessary FC data traffic
Correct:C D

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NO.6 A customer has asked you to implement VSANs in a C-Series fibre channel switch fabric. What
is a unique feature of VSANs?
A.It allows you to apply different fabric settings in one switch.
B.It allows you to connect different vendor switches to one infrastructure.
C.It allows you to configure more than one management IP address per switch.
D.It allows you to minimize oversubscription on connected ISLs through path load balancing.
Correct:A

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NO.7 Click the Task button. Type the appropriate multi-mode cable length for the given fibre channel
speeds.
A.150 300 500
Correct:A

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NO.8 Which fabric migration path is shown in the exhibit?
A.meshed to tree
B.cascaded to tree
C.cascaded to meshed
D.meshed to cascaded
Correct:B

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NO.9 Where do you install the HP Cluster Extension (CLX)?
A.on the switch as a license
B.on all servers in the cluster
C.on one cluster server at each site
D.on the same server as Command View
Correct:B

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NO.10 You are implementing an extended SAN infrastructure between two data centers which are 9km
apart. HP StorageWorks Edge Switch 2/24 is used in this environment. Which ports could be used
to connect the ISL between this data centers?
A.All ports support links for this distance by default.
B.You must enable the extended ISL ports individually.
C.The first four ports can connect a long-distance ISL.
D.Long-distance ISL ports must be unlocked by a license.
Correct:C

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Exam Code: HP0-S14
Exam Name: HP (Design and Implementation of HP SIM for ISS Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 When is system polling initiated?
A. when a system has generated an error condition
B. when a new system is added to the HP SIM database
C. when the HP SIM central management server (CMS) powers on
D. when HP SIM receives an alert from a managed system to determine system status
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have recently added a ProLiant BL20p G1 to the server blade enclosure monitored by PMP. At the
PMP License Administration page, this new server does not appear in the list of servers. Why?
A. The server does not have a valid serial number.
B. The server is too old and not supported by PMP.
C. The server has not yet been discovered by HP SIM.
D. The operating system running on this server is not supported.
E. The HP Insight Management Agents on this server are not at the required version.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which HP SIM procedure determines the system management protocol of a detected device and its
operating system?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does HP SIM 5.1 require to access management information on an HP ProLiant server running
Microsoft Windows Server 2003?
A. DMI
B. SSH-2
C. WBEM
D. Open SSH
E. WMI Mapper proxy
Answer: E

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NO.5 When is it necessary to install the WMI Mapper on a Windows-based Central Management Server
(CMS)?
A. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Linux operating system
B. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP-UX operating system
C. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running a Windows operating system
D. when at least one device managed by the CMS is running an HP OpenVMS operating system
Answer: C

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NO.6 Click the Exhibit button.
Which MX command generated the output shown in the exhibit?
A. mxtool
B. mxuser
C. mxauth
D. mxtoolbox
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which function regarding virtual machines is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. discovery of HP virtual machine systems
B. support for Microsoft Virtual Server 2005 remote console through a Mozilla browser
C. use of VMware Management Interface as a stand-alone tool to launch the remote console
D. not necessary to install VMware Remote Console on the system from which you are launching remote
console
Answer: A

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NO.8 When performing a Virtual to Physical migration (V2P), what are some prerequisites for the source
virtual machine? (Select two.)
A. Stop the HP SIM management agents on the virtual machine guest.
B. Insert the SMP Boot CD into the CD-ROM of the virtual machine guest.
C. Verify that the source virtual machine guest is powered off or suspended.
D. Verify that the source virtual machine host is licensed and managed by VMM.
E. Ensure that all network connections on the virtual machine guest have DHCP IP addresses.
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which protocols are used in HP SIM to query events from failing devices? (Select two.)
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
C. Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI)
D. Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: CE

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NO.10 What happens when HP Storage Essentials integrates with HP SIM? (Select two.)
A. SNMP for storage devices is disabled.
B. Data collection from SMI-S devices in HP SIM is disabled.
C. All storage-related events are forwarded to Storage Essentials.
D. Storage devices get marked as managed by Storage Essentials.
E. A new Storage Essentials user is added to the HP SIM user database.
Answer: BD

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NO.11 HP SIM 5.1 features API support to allow dynamic creation of new event types. What does this
support enable you to do?
A. Modify event types without having full configuration rights.
B. Modify event types without manually updating the HP SIM database.
C. Add event types without restarting the HP SIM central management server (CMS).
D. Add event types without manually refreshing any event collections that display in the CMS.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which function of the command mxquery is new to HP SIM 5.1?
A. The mxquery command can provide output in XML format.
B. The language of the query results depends on the CMS locale.
C. Users with limited configuration rights privileges can execute mxquery.
D. To run mxquery, you no longer need access to the file system where HP SIM is installed.
Answer: A

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NO.13 You find a 'critical' status in the Virtual Machine Management (VMM) column in HP SIM for the host
server running Microsoft Virtual Server 2005. What does this mean?
A. The virtual machine guest is in a state requiring attention.
B. The virtual machine host is licensed but is not currently communicating with VMM.
C. The VMM agent is installed on the virtual machine host but the host is not licensed.
D. The VMM agent is installed on the server but the server is not a virtual machine host.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which HP SIM process determines the associations between a management processor and its server,
a server blade and its enclosure, and an enclosure and its rack?
A. polling
B. discovery
C. identification
D. data collection
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which package integrates with HP SIM 5.1 to support monitoring and management of Itanium-based
server blades running HP-UX?
A. HP Integrity Essentials
B. HP ProLiant Essentials
C. HP OpenView Operations
D. HP SmartStart Scripting toolkit
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which protocol requires a special HP SIM component that configures the managed device to send
alerts to the Central Management Server (CMS) because it does not provide alerting capabilities?
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. HTTP
D. SNMP
E. WBEM
Answer: B

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NO.17 HP SIM 5.1 removes support for which product?
A. Oracle9i on HP-UX systems
B. HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager
C. PostgreSQL on x64 Linux operating systems
D. Insight Control Management Integrated Installer
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which types of HP Systems Insight Manager tools can be run on target systems? (Select three.)
A. XML-based type aware
B. all-system aware (ASA)
C. Intel system aware (ISA)
D. web launch aware (WLA)
E. single-system aware (SSA)
F. multiple-system aware (MSA)
Answer: DEF

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NO.19 When a system administrator attempts to update the firmware on a BladeSystem GbE2c interconnect
switch using HP SIM, the update is unsuccessful. What could be the reason?
A. The HP SIM server is running on Linux.
B. The VCA agent on the GbE2c interconnect switch is not active.
C. The GbE2c interconnect switch is not licensed for firmware upgrades.
D. The GbE2c interconnect switch can only be upgraded using the serial connection.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which protocols are used by HP SIM to identify nodes running Linux? (Select three.)
A. DMI
B. WMI
C. SSH
D. HTTP
E. SNMP
F. WBEM
Answer: DEF

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Exam Code: HP0-874
Exam Name: HP (Implementing Windows 2000 on HP ProLiant Clusters)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 Which command should be run to prepare the Microsoft Distributed Transaction Coordinator service to
become cluster-aware?
A. comclust.exe
B. dtcprep.exe
C. tdcconfig.exe
D. clusdtc.exe
Answer:

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NO.2 What is the benefit of software load balancing?
A. Easier to manage than hardware load balancing.
B. Low cost.
C. Scalability
D. No processor load on the application server farms.
Answer:

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NO.3 Identify two standard features of the Storage Works MSA1000 storage system by Compaq. (Choose
two)
A. 2Gb/s maximum transfer speeds.
B. Maximum of 84 Compaq Universal 1-inch Ultra3 drives supported.
C. Embedded 6-port 2Gb/s Fabric Switch.
D. Native FIBER Channel design.
Answer:

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NO.4 What are two ways that Compaq ProLiant clusters ensure reliability and investment protection of new
and existing clusters? (Choose two)
A. Certifies servers
B. Cluster application Tech Notes
C. Backward-compatible array controllers
D. Cost-effective migration paths across all cluster configurations
Answer:

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NO.5 In a Microsoft Windows 2000 Advanced Server environment, how many nodes can host a resource at
one time?
A. 1
B. 4
C. 8
D. 32
Answer:

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NO.6 What type of disk access support do SQL Server 2000 and the Cluster service provide?
A. Dynamic disk
B. Shared disk
C. Mutual disk
D. Shared-nothing disk
Answer:

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NO.7 What two features are exclusive to SQL Server 2000 when compared to SQL Server 7.0? (Choose
two)
A. Automatic detection of the cluster during installation.
B. Fully cluster-aware.
C. Hot standby active/passive configuration.
D. Mutual backup active/active configuration.
Answer:

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NO.8 What is a cluster node?
A. A group of servers.
B. A cluster client.
C. A server that is a member of a cluster.
D. Any hardware component that is part of a cluster.
Answer:

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NO.9 What should NOT be modified in the cica.ini file?
A. Read/write levels.
B. User names.
C. Administrator password.
D. Anything other than read/write levels.
Answer:

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NO.10 You have a ProLiant cluster running Windows NT 4.0. You are preparing to upgrade the cluster to
Windows 2000. What should you do before running the Primer Utility?
A. Dissolve NIC teams.
B. Run the Windows 2000 Readiness Analyzer.
C. Upgrade NIC teaming.
D. Dissolve the cluster.
Answer:

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NO.11 How do you eliminate a single point of failure in hubs and switches?
A.Connect a single hub or switch to both adapters in a fault-tolerant team.
B.Connect redundant NICs to separate hubs or switches.
C. Design the cluster using only hubs and no switches.
D. Design the cluster to use NIC teaming.
Answer:

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NO.12 What is one of the functions of the Cluster Node command?
A. Rename a cluster node.
B. Check the status of node resources.
C. Pause a cluster node.
D. Power down a cluster node.
Answer:

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NO.13 Which tape library is NOT supported by the Enterprise Backup Solution?
A. SSL2020 AIT
B. Model 4000
C. Model 35/70 DLT
D. TL895
Answer:

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NO.14 Which item is a storage subsystem restriction?
A. Storage Works Data Replication Manager (DRM) for the Storage Works MA8000 storage system
cannot be used to span physical Fiber Channel storage boxes.
B. Microsoft Windows 2000 must have a maximum of 12 drive letters per cluster for shared drives.
C. The Windows 2000 disk type must be dynamic, not basic.
D. Hardware-based disk fault tolerance cannot span physical Fiber Channel storage boxes, with the
exception of Storage Works DRM-enabled storage subsystems.
Answer:

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NO.15 Which Exchange 2000 feature enables you to take mailboxes offline in smaller groups to reduce backup
time?
A. Distributed architecture
B. Consolidated architecture
C. Multiple virtual server instances
D. Active/active configuration
Answer:

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NO.16 How many simultaneous SQL Server instances can be running on a cluster?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 32
Answer:

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NO.17 What determines the state of each resource when a group fails over?
A. The rights of the resource within that group.
B. The dependencies of the resource on the other resources in the group.
C. The group assignments of the group in the Cluster Administrator.
D. The IP address within the failed group.
Answer:

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NO.18 What is the primary feature of the ProLiant HA/F500 Enhanced Disaster-Tolerant stretched-cluster
configuration?
A. It combines the functionality of Data Replication Manager with the failover functionality of the Windows
2000 Cluster service.
B. It stores vast amounts of data inexpensively for large businesses.
C. It combines Windows 2000 Cluster service functionality with Ethernet distribution to allow faster data
access.
D. It combines the functionality of SANworks Virtual Replicator with the functionality of the Windows 2000
Cluster service.
Answer:

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NO.19 The Compaq Cluster Backup Connectivity Kit is designed for what ProLiant system?
A. DL380 Packaged Cluster
B. DL580 Cluster
C. DL590/64 Cluster
D. DL760 Datacenter Cluster Solution
Answer:

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NO.20 Which three components are included in the reliability testing of Compaq ProLiant clustering solutions?
(Choose three)
A. Application software
B. System management software
C. Storage system
D. Interconnect options
E. Backup software
Answer:

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Exam Code: HP0-144
Exam Name: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 111 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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NO.2 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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NO.9 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.11 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.13 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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NO.15 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.18 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

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NO.20 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-918
Exam Name: HP (HP Storage Data Protector 6.0 Fundamentals for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 The Data Protector Backup Session Manager (BSM) runs on which system or systems in the
cell?
A.client only
B.cell manager only
C.client and cell manager
D.dedicated installation server
Correct:B

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NO.2 What is the maximum recommended size of a file depot for Windows?
A.50GB
B.100GB
C.200GB
D.600GB
Correct:A

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NO.3 What must first be done on a Windows NT cell manager before upgrading Data Protector to
version 5.5?
A.Ensure that a Windows installation server is installed.
B.Ensure the current Data Protector version is at the highest patch level.
C.Install the latest Windows NT service pack.
D.Upgrade Windows NT to a higher Windows version.
Correct:D

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NO.4 A tape library with two drives is connected to two hosts (host A and host B) using SCSI. Each
host is accessing one drive through a dedicated SCSI connection. Host B also has access to the
robotics interface. Which statement is true in this configuration?
A.This configuration is not possible in a SCSI environment because all hosts need physical access to the
robotics controller.
B.Host A will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations for the local
drive.
C.Host B will need the media agent to control the robotics and perform all library operations.
D.Both hosts A and B will require a "direct library" configuration to allow shared network control of the
robotics.
Correct:C

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NO.5 How can you configure a mixed media library with Data Protector?
A.Set up a MultiPath device.
B.Set up one library definition per media type.
C.Set the media type manually on the library slots.
D.DP automatically configures the different media slots.
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which media agent program can be used for interactively sending SCSI commands to a tape
library?
A.lma
B.bma
C.uma
D.cma
E.mma
Correct:C

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NO.7 Which command checks the Data Protector services, the media management database
consistency, and that there is at least one backup of the Data Protector database?
A.omnicheck
B.omnihealth
C.omnidbcheck
D.omnihealthcheck
Correct:D

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NO.8 Between which instances is data moved during a disk staging object copy process?
A.Media Agent and Disk Agent
B.Media Agent and Media Agent
C.Backup Session Manager and Disk Agent
D.Backup Session Manager and Media Agent
Correct:B

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NO.9 How can you collect debug files from distributed Data Protector clients in the environment?
A.Use the omnidlc command.
B.Use the devbra collector.
C.Use the omnitrig process.
D.Use the Web Reporting GUI.
Correct:A

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NO.10 What are the three key qualifiers Data Protector uses to identify file system objects in the
database? (Select three.)
A.device
B.filenames
C.hostname
D.mountpoint
E.description
F.rawdisk sections
Correct:C D E

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NO.11 Which Data Protector process controls an active backup session?
A.the DA (disk agent) on the Cell Client
B.the MA (media agent) on the Cell Client
C.the CRS (cell request server) on the Cell Manager
D.the BSM (backup session manager) on the Cell Manager
Correct:D

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NO.12 Which interconnect technology is supported for shared tape device resources in a cluster
where the Cell Manager is installed in the cluster?
A.SCSI
B.Ethernet
C.Fibre Channel
D.SATA and SCSI
Correct:C

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NO.13 How can you prevent multiple hosts from simultaneously attempting to utilize a device in one
Data Protector cell?
A.logical lock
B.device lock
C.lock names
D.physical lock
Correct:C

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NO.14 What are the benefits of enhanced incremental over conventional incremental backups?
(Select two.)
A.higher backup throughput
B.detects renamed and removed files
C.backup detects files with attribute changes
D.backups are more secure due to better encryption
E.files with longer names are detected and backed up
Correct:B C

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NO.15 What communication technique is used for disk agent to media agent data transfer if the agents
do NOT reside on the same host?
A.RMI over LAN
B.remote agents
C.stream sockets
D.pipe mechanisms
Correct:C

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NO.16 What is a media pool?
A.a collection of media of the same age
B.a logical collection of media that belong together
C.a concept that enables faster backup and restore
D.a physical collection of media that is used by the same device
Correct:B

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NO.17 By default, which file is the Data Protector Database recovery file?
A.obdb.dat
B.obrindex.dat
C.obdatafiles.dat
D.obdbrecovery.dat
Correct:B

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NO.18 You are not able to configure a changer device on a remote media agent with the Data Protector
SSE (Single Server Edition). What can you do to resolve this problem?
A.Configure host access to the LUN.
B.Install the required device driver for the library.
C.Disable the RSM service on the agent system.
D.Upgrade Data Protector to support remote devices.
Correct:D

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NO.19 Which hardware is automatically reconfigured by ASR (Automated System Recovery) if that
hardware is replaced with a different type or size as part of the disaster recovery process?
A.Hard drive
B.Video card
C.Network card
D.Host bus adapter
Correct:A

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NO.20 Which Data Protector feature simplifies shared access of several hosts to a physical device?
A.redundant paths
B.multipath devices
C.device locking mechanism
D.multiple device connections
Correct:B

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Exam Code: HP0-794
Exam Name: HP (Implementing Windows Server 2003 on HP ProLiant Cluster Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of drive letters per cluster for shared drives with Microsoft
Windows Server 2003?
A.18
B.19
C.20
D.23
Correct:D

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NO.2 The ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA500 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.3 Cluster.exe can be used to _______.
A.launch the Cluster Monitor utility
B.administer clusters
C.launch Microsoft Cluster Administrator
D.power down the cluster
Correct:B

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NO.4 Which HP PCI-to-Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) uses the small form factor transceiver
connection and supports the MSA1000?
A.32-bit/33MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
B.64-bit/33MHz HBA using the Emulex chipset
C.64-bit/66MHz FCA-2101 HBA using the QLogic chipset
D.64-bit/66MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which adjustments should be made to the network adapter that has been set to Internal Cluster
Communications Only? Select THREE.
A.Designate the adapter as the primary NIC in a fault-tolerant team.
B.Remove all protocols other than TCP/IP and disable the Media Sense feature.
C.Set the adapter to a specific speed of 10Mb/s or 100Mb/s.
D.Set the adapter to use NetBIOS.
E.Set the adapter duplex mode to half duplex.
F.Use the auto-detect setting on the network adapter for the private interconnect.
Correct:B C E

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NO.6 What is least likely to fail in a Windows Server 2003 network environment?
A.hardware
B.applications
C.operating system
D.operational issues
E.infrastructure (building, power, network)
Correct:A

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NO.7 Which description accurately depicts an HP Multi-Server Card?
A.It supports up to 64 network devices within a single UPS group and provides unattended, sequential
shutdown of every device in that group, regardless of the operating system.
B.It enables each load segment to function as a separate UPS with individual shutdown schedules and
load segment configurations.
C.It detects and warns users of power failures and manages a safe system shutdown before the backup
power supply is exhausted.
D.It allows for the safe installation of new batteries through the front panel, without powering down the
connected equipment.
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which tasks have been identified by HP as important when planning network capacity and the
graceful failover and failback of cluster resources and services? Ensure that: ______. Select TWO.
A.each cluster node has processors of sufficient speed to handle the maximum client load of the entire
cluster
B.the surviving node network speed and protocol will handle the maximum number of I/Os necessary to
support critical services
C.the throughput of the NIC on the surviving node is sufficient to handle the maximum network load for
peak load cluster services
D.each individual cluster node can handle the maximum number of clients that can attach to the cluster
E.the shared storage capacity is sufficient to handle the load of the entire cluster
Correct:B D

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NO.9 The HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.10 Which SQL Server clustering requirement changed between SQL 7.0 and SQL 2000?
A.Only licenses for the first node in the cluster were required for SQL 7.0; all nodes must have licenses for
SQL 2000.
B.Multiple virtual SQL servers could not run on the same set of disks for SQL 7.0, but can run on the same
set of disks for SQL 2000.
C.Binaries are on the shared disk for SQL 7.0, but on the local disk for SQL 2000.
D.Microsoft Transaction Server and Microsoft Queue Manager are no longer included as components of
SQL 2000.
Correct:C

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Total Q&A: 73 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 How can you improve availability when configuring NonStop TCP/IPv6 with multiple failover pairs and
static routes?
A.Connect to a firewall that uses MAC to IP address filtering.
B.Select LIF pairs for the failover to be on the same adapters.
C.Add a copy of each route to one subnet in each failover pair.
D.Use Ethernet switches that have spanning tree protocol enabled.
Answer:C

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NO.2 Which event is most likely to interrupt availability in a satellite connected network?
A.heavy rain
B.decreased ozone levels
C.direct sunlight on the uplink
D.increased environmental noise
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which SCF command is used to display all configured TCP/IP addresses?
A.info subnet $*.*
B.listdev tcpip $*.*
C.status subnet $*.*
D.listopens process $*.*
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which LAN-based technology provides flexible connectivity of desktop and portable devices in an
office environment?
A.CAT3 cabling
B.wireless LAN
C.fiber optic LAN
D.10BaseT cabling
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which product allows a single IP address to be hosted in all processors in a NonStop server?
A.Telserv
B.Scalable IP (SIP)
C.NonStop TCP/IP
D.NonStop TCP/IPv6
Answer:D

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NO.6 An OLTP system processes 100 transactions per second with an average transaction size of 1000 bytes.
To replicate all transactions to a disaster recovery system, what is the minimum bandwidth required
between the systems?
A.1Gbps
B.9.6Kbps
C.64Kbps
D.4Mbps
Answer:D

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NO.7 What is the most efficient technology to use to create an Expand path between two NS-series servers
located in the same computer room?
A.X.25
B.SNA
C.Ethernet
D.ServerNet Cluster
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which SCF command is used to show process names related to a TCP/IP process?
A.show process $ZTC0
B.status process $ZTC0
C.listopens process $ZTC0
D.info process $ZTC0, detail
Answer:C

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NO.9 Which SCF command is used to view Expand network throughput?
A.stats line $LHC565
B.stats path $LHC565
C.trace path $LHC565
D.status path $LHC565
Answer:B

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NO.10 Which command allows you to view network-related events in the primary EMS log?
A.emscinfo $0, detail
B.emsdist type P, textout [#myterm]
C.emsdist type P, collector $0, textout [#myterm]
D.emsdist type P, collector $ZLOG, textout [#myterm]
Answer:C

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Last Update: 2014-02-22

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NO.1 You are planning a network upgrade at a small company. During a meeting, you learn that the
customer will install VoIP telephones that set Layer 2 priority markers for allvoice traffic, and the
VoIP traffic will not cross any routed links. What is necessary to ensure that ProVision ASIC
switches maintain the priorities set by the phones? (Selecttwo.)
A.LLDP-MED for all voice VLANs
B.an IEEE 802.1p-to-DSCP map for voice traffic
C.port-based priorities for ports connected to phones
D.default QoS settings
E.tagged links for all voice VLAN traffic
Correct:D E

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NO.2 You configured VLAN 10 and VLAN 24 on a ProCurve Switch 3500yl-48G. The network servers
reside in VLAN 10, which has an IP address range of 10.1.10.0/24. Network clients reside in VLAN
24, which has an IP address range of 10.1.24.0/24. You configure an ACL with these entries and
apply it statically to ports in VLAN 24: permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq ftp
permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0 10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq http permit tcp 10.1.24.0 0.0.0.0
10.1.10.10 255.255.255.255 eq telnet What is the effect of these ACLs on the clients located in
VLAN 24?
A.They would have no access at all, because the ACL is misconfigured.
B.They would be allowed only FTP, HTTP, and Telnet access to 10.1.10.10, but no access anywhere else.
C.They would be allowed only FTP, HTTP, and Telnet access to 10.1.10.10, but full access to everything
else in the 10.1.10.0 subnet.
D.They could not access anything in the 10.1.10.0 subnet, because IP has not been specified in the ACL.
Correct:B

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NO.3 Click the Exhibit button. What is the role of this Switch 3500yl in the OSPF routing domain?
A.ASBR
B.virtual router
C.ABR
D.internal router
Correct:D

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NO.4 You must configure a ProCurve Switch 8212zl to be the Backup router for a VRID associated
with VLAN 10. What must be true of the virtual IP address for the VRID on this router?
A.It must be an address assigned to a multi-netted interface.
B.It must be an address that is not assigned to any interface on either router.
C.It must match the Backup router's address for the VLAN 10 interface.
D.It must match the Owner router's address for the VLAN 10 interface.
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which part of the multicast address range is reserved for applications that will remain within an
enterprise intranet?
A.Internetwork Control Block
B.AD-HOC Block
C.Administratively Scoped Address Block
D.Local Network Control Block
Correct:C

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NO.6 You must configure Multiple Spanning Tree Protocol (MSTP) on two ProCurve 8212zl switches
and four 5406zl switches. Which configuration is necessary to ensure that all of the switches join
the same MST region?
A.The switches must have identical Port Priorities for shared links in each MST instance.
B.Bridge Priorities on all switches must be configured so that each MST instance has a different Root
Bridge.
C.All switch-to-switch links in each MST instance must be tagged members of all user VLANs.
D.The switches must be configured with identical config-names, config-revisions, and VLAN-to-instance
mappings.
Correct:D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button. What does this output from the show ip ospf neighbor command
indicate about the OSPF neighbor relationship between this router and the router with ID 10.3.0.1?
A.They are in different OSPF areas.
B.They have not formed an adjacency.
C.They are configured with different OSPF versions.
D.They are not eligible to be elected DR or BDR.
Correct:B

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NO.8 On a ProCurve Switch 8212zl, which feature must be enabled before you can enable VRRP?
A.MSTP
B.IP routing
C.IP multicast
D.RIP
Correct:B

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NO.9 You connect an IP telephone that supports LLDP-MED to a port on a ProCurve Switch 5406zl.
The port is a member of a voice VLAN and also requires 802.1X authentication. How will
LLDP-MED and 802.1X interact?
A.The switch will exempt the phone from the 802.1X requirement after confirming its LLDP-MED
information.
B.The switch will submit the phone's authentication credentials to a RADIUS server after the devices
exchange LLDP-MED information.
C.The switch will permit LLDP-MED communication with the phone after authentication is complete.
D.The switch will use information from the phone's first LLDP-MED frame to submit its authentication
credentials.
Correct:C

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NO.10 Port C1 on a ProCurve Switch 5412zl is a tagged member of VLAN 50 and an untagged member
of VLAN 1. Port C2 and port C3 are at default VLAN settings. What is the effect of the following
command entered at the CLI? 5412zl(config)# trunk c1-c3 trk1
A.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1, but port C1 is not included.
B.The trunk is not defined, because the ports' VLAN memberships do not match.
C.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1 and a tagged member of VLAN 50.
D.The trunk is defined as an untagged member of VLAN 1 but is not a member of VLAN 50.
Correct:D

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