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Exam Code: JN0-343
Exam Name: Juniper (Juniper Networks Certified Internet Specialist (JNCIS-ENT))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 393 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-29
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NO.1 Which configuration summarizes external routes in the 172.16.0.0/22 range into a single prefix on an
ABR for Area 1?
A. protocols { ospf { area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
default-lsa {
default-metric 1;
metric-type 1;
}
}
area-range 172.16.0.0/22;
}
}
}
B. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa {
area-range 172.16.0.0/22;
}
}
}
}
C. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
stub summaries;
}
}
}
D. protocols {
ospf {
area 0.0.0.1 {
nssa;
area-range 172.16.0.0/22 restrict;
}
}
}
Answer: B
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NO.2 Which three statements correctly describe the default BGP advertisement behavior in the Junos OS?
(Choose three.)
A. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to IBGP peers.
B. Routes learned through EBGP are advertised to other EBGP peers.
C. Routes learned through IBGP are advertised to other IBGP peers.
D. Routes learned through IBGP will be advertised to EBGP peers.
E. Routes learned through an IGP are automatically advertised to EBGP peers.
Answer: A,B,D
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NO.3 What are two valid BPDU types? (Choose two.)
A. topology change notification
B. configuration change
C. configuration
D. root bridge
Answer: A,C
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NO.4 When loop protection is enabled on an interface, what happens when the port stops receiving BPDUs?
A. The port is placed in a loop-inconsistent role.
B. The port is placed into listening mode.
C. The port is transitioned into a forwarding state.
D. The interface is disabled.
Answer: A
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NO.5 Which Junos command correctly configures the ge-0/0/0.0 interface to operate only for IS-IS Level 2?
A. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 2 enable
B. set interfaces ge-0/0/0.0 family iso level 1 disable
C. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 2 enable
D. set protocols isis interface ge-0/0/0.0 level 1 disable
Answer: D
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NO.6 Which statement describes the default Junos OS behavior for OSPF?
A. External LSAs are advertised in a stub area.
B. An ABR does not announce a default route into a stub area.
C. Stub area internal routers generate a default route.
D. Only totally stubby areas need a default route.
Answer: B
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NO.7 Which statements are true about graceful Routing Engines switchover (GRES)?
A. Configuration on both Routing Engines must be synchronized.
B. The backup Routing Engine cannot be managed through IP address because RPD does not run on
backup the Routing Engine.
C. Different hostnames must be configured on both Routing-Engines.
D. Both Routing-Engines are managed through a single out-of-band-management IP address.
Answer: A
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NO.8 Given the following output, what has been configured for the 192.168.3.0/24 prefix?
A. per-flow load balancing
B. a floating static route
C. per-packet load balancing
D. a qualified next hop
Answer: A
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NO.9 Which command correctly assigns AS 65432 as the local router's autonomous system?
A. set protocols bgp local-as 65432
B. set routing-options local-as 65432
C. set protocols bgp autonomous-system 65432
D. set routing-options autonomous-system 65432
Answer: D
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NO.10 When processing inbound Ethernet frames, which firewall filter is evaluated first by an EX Series
switch?
A. port filter
B. VLAN filter
C. trunk filter
D. route filter
Answer: A
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NO.11 Which protocol is an IGP?
A. LACP
B. STP
C. OSPF
D. PAGP
Answer: B
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NO.12 What is the correct sequence of OSPF adjacency formation?
A. Down, Init, ExStart, 2way, Loading, Exchange, Full
B. Down, 2way, Init, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full
C. Down, Init, 2way, ExStart, Exchange, Loading, Full
D. Down, Init, 2way, Loading, ExStart, Exchange, Full
Answer: C
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NO.13 In the following output, what does the asterisk indicate?
A. The interface is configured as a trunk.
B. The interface is configured for spanning-tree protocol.
C. The interface is active.
D. The interface is inactive.
Answer: C
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NO.14 Which two pieces of information are communicated by IS-IS TLVs? (Choose two.)
A. network protocols supported
B. designated router priority
C. authentication key
D. PDU Length
Answer: A,C
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NO.15 Which OSPF area type can contain Type 7 LSAs?
A. backbone
B. not-so-stubby
C. stub
D. totally stubby
Answer: B
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NO.16 What is the default behavior of a trunk port when it receives transit traffic without a VLAN tag?
A. It drops the traffic.
B. It forwards the traffic.
C. It tags the transit traffic with lowest VLAN ID permitted on the trunk.
D. It tags the transit traffic with highest VLAN ID permitted on the trunk.
Answer: A
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NO.17 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the exhibit, in which spanning-tree state would the indicated port be.?
A. listening
B. learning
C. forwarding
D. blocking
Answer: C
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NO.18 Which routing-instance type allows the sharing of interface routes and the support features used in
source-based routing?
A. virtual-router
B. vrf
C. forwarding
D. multi-instance
Answer: C
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NO.19 What is the minimum configuration necessary to create two VLANs and two operational RVIs?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B
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NO.20 Which of the following is enabled by default on an EX Series switch?
A. MAC move limiting
B. storm control
C. IP source guard
D. dynamic ARP inspection
Answer: B
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NO.21 Which BGP attributes are listed in the correct route selection order?
A. local preference, AS path, origin, MED
B. local preference, MED, AS path, origin
C. AS path, local preference, origin, MED
D. MED, origin, local preference, AS path
Answer: A
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NO.22 Which two OSPF LSA types can be used to advertise routes between areas? (Choose two.)
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: C,D
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NO.23 Which OSPF LSA type is sent by all routers in an area to advertise its connected subnets?
A. router
B. network
C. external
D. summary
Answer: A
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NO.24 An administrator finds that traffic from a large file download over an HTTP session is not load-balanced
across multiple links in a LAG. What is the possible cause?
A. Per-packet load-balancing is not configured.
B. The redundant path has a different IGP metric.
C. The hash key is not configured in the forwarding-options stanza.
D. This is the expected behavior.
Answer: D
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NO.25 Which configuration correctly sets interface ge-0/0/4 in trunk mode, carrying VLANs v10 and v20?
A. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
} } }
B. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
}
}
}
C. ge-0/0/4 {
vlan-tagging;
unit 0 {
family ethernet-switching {
port-mode trunk;
vlan {
members [ v10 v20 ];
}
}
}
}
D. ge-0/0/4 {
unit 10 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
unit 20 {
family ethernet-switching;
}
}
Answer: B
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NO.26 Which of the following can be used for both security and loop prevention?
A. firewall filters
B. DHCP snooping
C. dynamic ARP inspection D. MAC move limiting
Answer: D
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NO.27 Configuring bpdu-timeout-action enables which protection mechanism?
A. root protection
B. BPDU protection
C. loop protection
D. RSTP protection
Answer: C
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NO.28 Which configuration disables a port when more than 30,000 Kbps of broadcast traffic is received over
an aggregated Ethernet interface with two member links?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C
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NO.29 Which two of the following are functions of the BGP update message? (Choose two.)
A. It withdraws routes that are no longer valid.
B. It notes that an unsupported option is detected from the open message.
C. It transports routing information between BGP peers.
D. It readvertises routes that have already been sent and acknowledged.
Answer: A,C
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NO.30 How much overhead does the GRE header add to an IPv4 packet?
A. 24 bytes
B. 32 bytes
C. 48 bytes
D. 64 bytes
Answer: A
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