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Exam Code: A2090-919
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: System Administrator for Informix Server 11.70)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-11
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NO.1 Which SQL Administration API command will merge non-contiguous table extents?
A. shrink
B. defragment
C. table repack
D. merge extents
Answer: B
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NO.2 How is the DBSSO group determined on a Unix system with role separation?
A. It is always the groupinformix.
B. It is set using theonsecurity command line tool.
C. It is the group that owns $INFORMIXDIR/dbssodir.
D. It is the group specified in the DBSSOonconfig parameter.
Answer: C
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NO.3 Which onstat command will allow the gathering of statistics about the Informix Database Scheduler
tasks that are currently running or scheduled to be run?
A. onstat -g dbc
B. onstat -g sch
C. onstat -g adm
D. onstat -g tsk
Answer: A
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NO.4 Which sysmaster table can be queried to find the logging status of a database?
A. sysdb
B. sysdblog
C. sysdatabases
D. sysdblogstatus
Answer: C
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NO.5 Which statement about auditing is NOT true?
A. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows in the table.
B. You can enable auditing row updates just for a subset of rows in the table.
C. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database except for system
catalog tables.
D. You can enable auditing row updates for all rows from all tables in the database and for the system
catalog tables.
Answer: B
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NO.6 When a SELECT statement is executed which statement is true?
A. The number and duration of the locks is dependent on the ISOLATION LEVEL.
B. If COMMITTED READ isolation is in place then the SELECT will never encounter any locking errors.
C. Within a transaction the database server will place row or page locks on anonlogging table.
D. If the SELECT is part of an UPDATE cursor then the database server will place an exclusive lock on
the entire dataset.
Answer: A
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NO.7 Which role can create, alter, or delete trusted context objects?
A. DBA
B. DBSA
C. DBSSO
D. DBSECADM
Answer: D
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NO.8 By default, the alarm program gets executed for which event(s)?
A. All events.
B. Only for events with Severity code 1.
C. Only for events with Severity code 5.
D. Only for events with Severity code greater than 1.
Answer: D
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NO.9 For a given procedure name, what is the objective of the SQL query shown below?
A. The query returns the ordered text form of the specified procedure body.
B. The query returns the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body.
C. The query returns both ordered text and ordered compiled form of the specified procedure body.
D. The query returns neither the ordered text nor the ordered compiled form of the specified procedure
body.
Answer: A
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NO.10 Which command line utility displays real time statistics about the instance?
A. dbinfo
B. onstat
C. dbschema
D. onmachinfo
Answer: B
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NO.11 Which of the following activities does the Secure-Auditing Facility NOT monitor and record?
A. Specific rows.
B. Specific users.
C. Specific tables.
D. Specific DML operations.
Answer: A
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NO.12 Which statement about the scope of UPDATE STATISTICS is true?
A. If the FOR PROCEDURE keywords are included but the name of any SPL routine is not specified, an
error will be returned.
B. If the FOR TABLE keywords are used without specifying the name or synonym of a table, the database
will not recalculate distributions for any table in the current database.
C. If the FOR TABLE keywords are specified with a table but without specifying a list of columns, the
database server will not recalculate distributions on all of the columns of the specified table.
D. If the FOR PROCEDURE specification, Table and Column Scope, and Resolution clauses are NOT
included, then the statistics are updated for every table and SPL routine in the current database.
Answer: D
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NO.13 Which statement about mapped user functionality is true?
A. Mapped users cannot execute distributed operations.
B. Mapped users are allowed to run with multiple names.
C. The DBSA can control the access to tables at a row level using security labels.
D. The DBSA can grant database server access to externally authenticated users with no local account.
Answer: D
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NO.14 Which of the following privileges is NOT valid for a table fragment?
A. ALL
B. INSERT
C. UPDATE
D. CREATE INDEX
Answer: D
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NO.15 Which statement regarding default roles is true?
A. An administrator can define a default role to assign only to the PUBLIC group for a particular database.
B. The privileges associated with a default role takes precedence over the privileges granted to an
individual user.
C. An administrator can define a default role to assign to individual users or to the PUBLIC group for a
particular database.
D. When a user connects to a database, it is necessary to use the SET ROLE DEFAULT statement in
order to gain the default role privileges.
Answer: C
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NO.16 Which two corrective actions may be taken if following message is logged in the online message log
during a failed attempt to bring an instance online? (Choose two)
18:15:44
Size of resident + virtual segments 100000KB + 60000KB > 150000KB
18:15:44
total allowed by configuration parameter SHMTOTAL
A.
Decrease SHMADD
B.
Increase SHMTOTAL
C.
Decrease SHMBASE
D.
Increase SHMVIRTSIZE
E.
Decrease buffer pool size
Answer: B,E
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NO.17 What output is NOT reported by the dbschema utility?
A. The database logging mode.
B. The schemas of remote databases.
C. The table definitions without owner names.
D. Theonspaces commands to re-create your systems' dbspaces.
Answer: A
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NO.18 Why do automatic checkpoints cause the database server to trigger more frequent checkpoints?
A. To avoid LRU flushes.
B. To ensure the buffer pool is always available.
C. To ensure theonstat -g ckp report is accurate.
D. To avoid transaction blocking during checkpoints.
Answer: D
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NO.19 To enable network encryption, what two steps must the administrator complete? (Choose two.)
A. Enter the CSM name in thesqlhosts file.
B. Set the IFX_ENCCSMonconfig parameter to 1.
C. Define the CSM in the concsm.cfg configuration file.
D. Enter the CSM name in theonconfig NETTYPE parameter.
E. Set the environment variable ENCCSMCFG to the name of the CSM.
Answer: A,C
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NO.20 What does the ovbuff field of an onstat -p output show?
A. The number of times that a buffer was read.
B. The number of times a buffer was extended.
C. The number of times that any buffer was overwritten.
D. The number of times the instance ran out offree buffers.
Answer: D
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