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Exam Code: 920-340
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Software Communication System 500 Rls.2.0 Config)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 57 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-18

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NO.1 On which server does the Nortel Software Communication System 500 (SCS500) run?
A.Intel dual-core E4600 CPU
B.Standard 1 GB/s Ethernet server
C.System 5 default server platform
D.Dell Optiplex 755 server platform
Answer:D

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button. Which field do you change to adjust the number of dialpad keys the system
accepts before interpreting a user's request?
A.Inter-Dual Tone Multi-frequency (DTMF) Timeout
B.Maximum Number of DTMF tones
C.Replay Count
D.Overall DTMF Timeout
Answer:B

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NO.3 In comparing the types of conferences available with the Software Communication System 500
(SCS500), which conference uses reserved ports?
A.Scheduled conference
B.Administrator conference
C.Meet Me conference
D.Instant conference
Answer:A

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NO.4 Which action is required to configure Hunt Group call scenarios for incoming received digits presented
to the Software Communication System 500 (SCS500) system?
A.Configure user aliases.
B.Enter the digits from the provider of the digital trunk as the hunt group number.
C.Determine the call sequence for Hunt Group user extensions.
D.Specify a Hunt Group Fallback Destination.
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which gateway provides connectivity to the PSTN via digital interfaces (PRI/T1/E1 or BRI)?
A.AudioCodes MP-118 FXO
B.Nortel Analog VoIP gateway 4 port FXO
C.AudioCodes MP-114 FXS
D.AudioCodes Mediant 1000
Answer:D

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Exam Code: 920-183
Exam Name: Nortel (Callpilot RIS.5.0 System Administrator)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-27

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NO.1 The performance and capabilities for Remote Notification are important for both the system
administrator and the user. Which two statements about configuring Remote Notification are true?
(Choose two.)
A. The schedule is defined in the mailbox class.
B. It can be set up with telephone keypad commands.
C. It can be configured for up to three target Directory Numbers (DNs).
D. It allows only a specific number of retries before notification is turned off.
Answer: BD

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NO.2 You are implementing the Outlook Single Inbox feature at your company. The IT team asks you how
this feature affects the Exchange Server. Which information will you share to answer their question?
A. The original CallPilot message and all copies are transferred to the Exchange Server.
B. Synchronization between the Exchange Server and the CallPilot Server occurs even when CallPilot is
not running.
C. Copies of users' CallPilot messages are saved to the Exchange Server. The original messages reside
on the CallPilot server.
D. Desktop Messaging synchronization does not require that Microsoft Outlook be actively running on the
user's computer.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are installing the Messaging Waiting Indication (MWI) icon for Desktop Messaging and My
CallPilot users. Which statement about the MWI icon feature is true?
A. You can install the MWI software by using only the desktop client installer.
B. You can install the MWI software by using only the standalone desktop player.
C. You can install the MWI software by using the desktop client installer or the standalone desktop player.
D. You cannot download the MWI software from My CallPilot. You must download from Desktop
Messaging.
Answer: C

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NO.4 CallPilot Desktop Messaging clients at a company are unable to send messages from the desktop
interface. Which messaging protocol must be configured to enable this capability?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer wants to implement a User Privacy Option for all My CallPilot users. How can the
administrator let the users self-administer the privacy option?
A. In the Mailbox settings of Security Administration, deselect Name Dialing and Name Addressing.
B. In the Name Dialing settings of the Messaging Management page, deselect Name Dialing and Name
Addressing.
C. In the Privacy and Blocking settings of the User Creation Template, deselect Name Dialable by
External Callers.
D. In the Desktop and Web Messaging Configuration settings of the Mailbox Class Details page, select
Allow User to Hide Entry in Address Book.
Answer: D

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NO.6 After a user attempts to launch an Email-By-Phone session by pressing 8-9, the system responds by
stating that the message list is empty and returns the user to CallPilot messages. What is a possible
cause for this scenario?
A. The message list on the email server is empty.
B. The user has an incorrect user ID or password.
C. The Email-By-Phone feature is not enabled for this user.
D. The email address is entered incorrectly in the mailbox properties.
Answer: A

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NO.7 CallPilot administrators can provide centralized control of desktop options. Which two are configurable
services for Desktop and Web Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. fax printing
B. desktop playback
C. address book location
D. creation of a revert directory number
Answer: BC

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NO.8 After installing CallPilot Desktop Messaging, an end user needs to retrieve the messages from the
CallPilot mailbox. Which protocol enables desktop messaging clients to retrieve messages from the
CallPilot server?
A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)
B. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 920-470
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Converged Office for Comm Svr 1000 Rls5.x Plan and Eng)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-27

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NO.1 Which statement most accurately describes the function of the Media Gateway Controller (MGC) card in
a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.0 system with Nortel Converged Office?
A.The MGC supports peripheral cards for TDM services.
B.The MGC provides basic call processing functions for the CS 1000E.
C.The MGC provides a gateway controller for IP media gateways in the CS 1000E.
D.The MGC acts as a Terminal Proxy Server (TPS) or virtual line card for the IP Phones.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Click on the Exhibit button.
An Office Communicator (OC) 2007 user makes a call to an IP telephone user. Both OC 2007 and IP
telephone users are talking with one another.
Which protocol shown in the exhibit provides the communications between the Office Communicator
Server (OCS) Proxy with MCM and the Mediation Server?
A.TCP/SIP
B.RTP
C.sRTP
D.SIP
Answer: D

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NO.3 A company is planning to deploy a new Communication Server (CS) 1000E with Nortel Converged
Office. They want to provide media security (SRTP) to encrypt the IP media path to and from all of the
DSP channels.
Which EC Report shows the correct components?
A.-@b$

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Exam Code: 920-221
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Convered Campus ERS Installation and Configuration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 59 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-27

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NO.1 You are using the Nortel Network Command Line Interface (NNCLI) to modify a VLAN or a port. Which
NNCLI command mode are you using?
A.Global Configuration Mode
B.Interface Configuration Mode
C.Privileged EXEC Mode
D.Router Configuration Mode
Answer:B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about Power over Ethernet (PoE)? (Choose two.)
A.PoE requires a significant increase in power capacity.
B.PoE enables cooling systems and load-sharing power supplies.
C.PoE provides increased power, resiliency, and redundancy at low cost.
D.PoE is used to power IP telephones, Web cameras, and access points.
Answer:A D

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NO.3 You can use the User Interface (UI) button on the Ethernet Routing Switch 5500 to temporarily reset a
switch to the default IP address. Which two statements are true about the default IP address set via the UI
button? (Choose two.)
A.The default IP address overrides the IP address currently in use by the switch stack.
B.The default IP address overwrites the onfigured IP address settings that are set via console, Command
Line Interface (CLI), or Web.
C.The default IP address changes if there is a change in the state of the switch, such as if the switch joins
or leaves a stack.
D.The default IP address is saved in NVRAM across resets of the switch/stack.
Answer:A C

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NO.4 A customer would like to configure an IP address for an existing VLAN on an Ethernet Routing Switch
5510. You use the following Command Line Interface (CLI) command sequence: From the initial CLI
prompt, enter privilege mode, enter config mode, enter config-if mode for the VLAN interface. Enter the
command, "ip address". What information do you enter next?
A.Enter the appropriate IP address of the backup CPU.
B.Enter the appropriate IP address and subnet mask in dotted decimal notation.
C.Enter the appropriate IP address for the out-of-band management port.
D.Enter the appropriate IP address for the in-band management port.
Answer:B

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NO.5 If you do not know the IP address of an Ethernet Routing Switch 5510, how can you upload code?
A.Use Telnet.
B.Use Console Access.
C.Use the Web browser.
D.Use the Java Device Manager.
Answer:B

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Exam Code: 922-101
Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 Linux Platform Architecture)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 32 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-27

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NO.1 A customer is deploying a Communication Server (CS) Rls. 6.0 system. They plan to have a Dell R300
COTS configured as the Primary Security Server and a CPPM configured as a Backup Security Server.
Which statements regarding the roles of the Primary and Backup Security Server are true? (Choose two.)
A. You must have a Backup Security Server for the CS 1000 network.
B. The Backup Security Server is automatically promoted to Primary Security Server.
C. The Primary Security Server cannot be demoted to a member server.
D. The Backup Security Server automatically handles authentication requests when the Primary is down.
Answer: CD

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NO.2 You have installed the Linux Base onto a Commercial Off the Shelf (COTS) server that will be
configured as a Member Server. You are ready to perform the Security Configuration. All LAN connections
are in place and functioning normally.
After connecting through a browser, what is your next step to perform the Security Configuration of this
COTS Member server?
A. Enter the IP address of the Certificate Authority in the address bar of the browser.
B. Enter the IP address of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.
C. Enter the FQDN of the COTS Member server in the address bar of the browser.
D. Enter the FQDN of the Primary Security server in the address bar of the browser.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is deploying a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 High Availability system and would like
to know what options for Signaling Server functionality exist.
Which options can the customer deploy? (Choose two.)
A. CPPM VxWorks-based Signaling Server
B. CPPM Linux-based Signaling Server
C. COTS VxWorks-based Signaling Server
D. COTS Linux-based Signaling Server
Answer: BD

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Exam Code: 922-072
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls 4.0 BCM 450 Rls. 1.0 Config)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 A customer with a BCM400 has a requirement of one T1, six PSTN analog lines and 12 digital
telephones.
What are the minimum Media Bay Module (MBM) requirements?
A.one DTM and one G8X16B.one BRIM and one GASM8
C.one GATM8 and one G4X16
D.one GATM4 and one DSM16+
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which statement about the BCM450 capacity expansion card (CEC) is true?
A.A BCM450 with a CEC can support a maximum of 300 trunks.
B.You can remove the CEC if the customer capacity needs drop.
C.A BCM450 with a CEC can support a maximum of 130 stations.
D.The CEC is a standard card that comes installed with every BCM450.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which Media Bay Module (MBM) can be combined with the G4x16 on the same DS30 bus on a
BCM200/400 system?
A.DTM
B.GATM4
C.GASM8
D.BRI S/T
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of IP trunks you can have on a BCM450 with a capacity expansion card?
A.48
B.80
C.130
D.300
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is the function of the BCM450 chassis interface board (CIB)?
A.The CIB connects the base function tray to the chassis wiring.
B.The CIB increases IP trunk capacity.
C.The CIB connects the media services card to the media bay modules.
D.The CIB in the BCM450 can be used in a BCM400 main unit.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 920-345
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM 50/450 Rls.5.0 Installation & Initial Configuration)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-12-01

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NO.1 Which part of the Element Manager panel do you use to rename a folder or network element?
A. Information panel
B. Network element navigation panel
C. Tools
D. File/rename
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are installing a customer-supplied external non-trunk port paging system to a BCM450. It will
provide paging over external loudspeakers What connections on the BCM450 will you be using?
A. page output and ATA2
B. page output and auxiliary power outlet
C. speaker and page output
D. page output and page relay output
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which is correct for initializing CallPilot Mailboxes?
A. All mailboxes are automatically initialized when they are created
B. If more subscriber mailboxes are needed than are available by default on the system, the administrator
must create then initialize them
C. Mailbox owners initialize their own mailboxes
D. The administrator can bulk initialize mailboxes by subscriber group
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which is true of customizing a startup profile for your Business Communications Manager (BCM)
system?
A. The startup profile retrieves the system ID automatically
B. You cannot copy and paste data between cells in the Startup Profile
C. If you need to change anything after loading parameters, you can edit the startup profile SPS file
D. You cannot load akeycode using the startup profile
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your customer does not want callers to be automatically disconnected by Auto Attendant How can this
be prevented?
A. Set Return to Auto Attendant in General Properties
B. Set Auto Attendant to forward the caller to IVR if the caller does not hang up after completing the Auto
Attendant action
C. Activate the menu repeat key
D. Activate the Auto Attendant Loop
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 922-111
Exam Name: Nortel (Communication Server 1000 to Rls.6.0 Upgrades for Technicia)
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Total Q&A: 27 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-16

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NO.1 A customer is upgrading an existing Option 11C Rls. 5.5 chassis system to a Communication Server
1000E Rls. 6.0 Standard Availability. A CPPM Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server card is being
installed during the upgrade. The CPPM Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server card has been
installed into Slot 1 and configured. What is the next sequential step in the upgrade process?
A.Insert the bootable RMD containing software installation files into the faceplate of the CPPM Call Server
card.
B.Reboot the card to begin the Linux base software installation.
C.Insert the RMD containing the Rls. 5.5 customer database into the faceplate of the CPPM Co-Resident
Call card.
D.Connect the administration console to Port 0 of the NTAK19EC SDI cable.
Answer:D

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NO.2 A customer with an existing Option 11C Rls. 5.5 chassis system is planning to upgrade to a
Communication Server 1000E Rls. 6.0 Standard Availability. A CPPM card will be installed as a
Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server during the upgrade. Which task must be completed prior to
loading Linux Base onto the card? (Choose two.)
A.The BIOS of the card must be updated to version 18.
B.The S5 switch must be set to position 1.
C.The CMOS settings must be reset to factory defaults.
D.The on-board 1 GB Compact Flash must be installed.
Answer:A C

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NO.3 Click on the Exhibit button. You are upgrading a single site Option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a
Communication Server 1000E Rls. 6.0 Standard Availability with a single IP Media Gateway (MG) 1000E
chassis. The customer is using a CPPM card from inventory as a CPPM Co-Resident Call Server and
Signaling Server. Based on the output received when the card boots up, shown in the exhibit, what must
done before Linux Base can be loaded?
A.the Low Memory must be doubled
B.the BIOS must be updated from version 74 to version 18
C.the BIOS must be updated from version 14 to version 18
D.the Extended Memory must be doubled
Answer:C

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NO.4 A customer with an existing Option 11C Rls. 5.5 chassis system is planning to upgrade to a
Communication Server 1000E Rls. 6.0 Standard Availability. A CPPM Co-Resident Call Server and
Signaling Server card will be installed. The system will automatically map small system Terminal Numbers
to large system Terminal format during the upgrade. In this upgrade scenario, which actions must be
completed manually? (Choose two.)
A.Re-programming Digital Trunk Terminal Numbers with a new format.
B.Programming the DSP daughterboards on the IP Media Gateway.
C.Entering the IP address for each IP Media Gateway in LD 97.
D.Re-programming Tone Receiver Terminal Numbers with a new format.
Answer:B C

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NO.5 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 5.5 HA system with two IPMGs and dual
CPPM Signaling Servers is upgrading their system to release 6.0. The system is part of an IP Peer
Network that includes a NRS database. Which upgrade step is correct?
A.Use NRS Manager to download the NRS backup file to a compact flash.
B.Use Element Manager to download the Signaling Server backup file to a compact.
C.User NRS Manager to download the NRS backup file to the local PC.
D.Use Element Manager to download the Signaling Server backup file to the local PC.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 920-338
Exam Name: Nortel (BCM50 Rls.3.0 BCM200/400 Rls 4.0 and BCM450 Rls. 1.0 Instal Con)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-16

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NO.1 The Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50) expansion unit is designed to support
Media Bay Modules (MBMs). These modules are available in many configurations.
What is the maximum number of MBMs that the system can support?
A.one
B.two
C.four
D.six
Answer: B

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NO.2 On a company's default system, six buses of DS30 channel blocks are assigned to Media Bay Modules
(MBM) (2/6 channel split). The DS30 allocation needs to be changed to a 3/5 split to accommodate
increased IP telephony requirements.
How is this change accomplished?
A.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 6 to the system bus resource.
B.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 6 to the system bus resource through the MBM dip switches.
C.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 7 to the system bus resource.
D.The BCM 200/400 assigns bus 7 to the system bus resource, although all telephony programming will
be defaulted.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are configuring a BCM50 VoIP network using SIP trunks. You want to ensure callers from remote
systems are authorized to place calls to the local system.
How do you do this?
A.Enable Remote Authentication, and enter each DN to be verified in the Local Accounts table.
B.Enable Local Authentication, and enter User ID/Password combinations in the Local Accounts table.
C.Enable Remote Authentication, and enter User ID/Password combinations in the Local Accounts table.
D.Enable Local Authentication, and enter each DN to be verified in the Local Accounts table.
Answer: B

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NO.4 On a Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50), how do you program several special
features at once for CallPilot mailboxes?
A.Enable networking in the Class of Service.
B.Assign express messaging lines in mailbox properties.
C.Assign features by selecting a Class of Service.
D.Purchase additional authorization codes.
Answer: C

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NO.5 You require a Nortel Business Communications Manager 50 (BCM50) system with an Ethernet router.
Which main unit must you choose?
A.BCM50
B.BCM50a
C.BCM50b
D.BCM50e
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 920-362
Exam Name: Nortel (Notel 920-362)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-16

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NO.1 A customer is installing a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 System with Unified
Communications Management. The Linux base software has been installed and the CPPM Co-Resident
Call Server and Signaling server has been configured as a member server within an existing CS 1000 Rls
6.0 security domain. Which statement describes the process the administrator must use to deploy
applications to the CPPM Co-Resident?
A.Log in to the UCM of the Primary Security Server and access the Base Manager to deploy.
B.Log in to the Base Manager and access local Deployment Manager to deploy.
C.Log in to the Base Manager and access central Deployment Manager to deploy.
D.Log in to the UCM of the Primary Security Server and access central Deployment Manager to deploy.
Answer:D

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NO.2 A customer purchased a Media Gateway (MG) 1000B Rls. 6.0 system to add to an existing
Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 6.0 system. Which statements regarding the hardware
components within a release 6.0 Branch Office are true? (Choose two.)
A.The MG 1000B supports Co-Res and SIP Line Gateway on separate physical servers.
B.The MG 1000B supports Co-Res and Signaling Server Gateway on the same physical server.
C.The MG 1000B supports a redundant Co-Res Call Servers.
D.The MG 1000B supports Co-Res and SIP Line Gateway on the same physical server.
Answer:A B

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NO.3 A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 customer opened a trouble ticket that a newly installed
system with SIP Line Gateway cannot place calls to an existing 5.x site. After investigating the problem
you isolate the problem to the SIP Line Gateway settings. Which SIP Line Gateway Setting is most likely
to block calls between the two sites?
A.Security Policy - Security Disabled
B.Security Policy - Best Effort
C.Security Policy - Secure Local
D.Security Policy - Secure End-to-End
Answer:D

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NO.4 A customer with a newly installed Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 SA Co-Res is reporting
dropped calls between the two campus sites. You suspect the call server is not terminating the call and
decide to login and review the configuration and collect the logs from the active Call Server. Which CS
1000E hardware component will you access to verify the configuration and review the logs?
A.Co-resident Call and Signaling Server running on Dell R300 server
B.Co-resident Call and Signaling Server running on HP DL320 server
C.Co-resident Call and Signaling Server running on IBM x3550 server
D.Co-resident Call and Signaling Server running on CPPM server
Answer:D

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NO.5 At a customer site, you installed a Communication Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 6.0 SA Co-Res system with
the following CS 1000 applications. Call Server, Signaling Server, Element Manager, Network Routing
Service Manager, and Subscriber Manager. Upon accessing Subscriber Manager, information regarding
the System ID is displayed on the screen and you're not able to navigate the Subscriber Manager web
page. Which task is required next before you can navigate and manage the Subscriber Manager
Application?
A.Copy and Paste the system ID information and create a new Subscriber Manager certificate within the
UCM Private Certificate Authority.
B.Copy and Paste the system ID information to the Nortel.com Keycode Retrieval System to generate a
license file.
C.Export the system ID as an XML file and distribute the file to the CS 1000 Element Managers as a
trusted application.
D.Export the system ID as an XML file and synchronize the file information with the customer's LDAP
server.
Answer:B

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NO.6 A customer is planning to deploy a multi-site Communication Server (CS) 1000E network with a UCM
Security Domain that includes a Primary Security Server and a Backup Security Server. Which
statements regarding the Backup Security Server are true? (Choose two.)
A.It manages authorization requests when the Primary is not available.
B.It manages configuration changes when the Primary is not available.
C.It manages authentication requests when the Primary is not available.
D.It issues certificates to servers when the Primary is not available.
Answer:A C

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NO.7 From which two parts is the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) composed and in what order must
they be configured?
A.first the host name and then the domain name
B.first the domain name and then the host name
C.first the COTS server IP address and then the port number
D.first the COTS server port number and then the IP address
Answer:A

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NO.8 A customer that recently deployed a Communication Server 1000 Rls. 6.0 system with Unified
Communications Management would like to take advantage of the UCM log forwarding capability. Which
statement regarding UCM Logging Services is true?
A.Only Application logs can be forwarded to a Syslog server.
B.Only OAM and Security logs can be forwarded to a Syslog server.
C.Application, OAM and Security logs can all be forwarded to a Syslog server.
D.Only Security logs can be forwarded to a Syslog server.
Answer:B

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NO.9 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 SA Co-Res system is experiencing an
Element Manager issue where the page cannot be displayed to the users. In order to resolve this problem
you decide to reboot the Element Manager. The CPPM Co-Res server has the following deployed
applications. Call Server, Signaling Server, Element Manager, and Network Routing Service. Which
option allows for the least service interruption when restarting the Signaling Server application?
A.Restart the Signaling Server application via Element Manager - Maintenance.
B.Restart the Signaling Server application by pressing the INI button on the CPPM server.
C.Restart the Signaling Server application by pressing the RST button on the CPPM server.
D.Restart the Signaling Server application by logging into the Base Manager and restarting Jboss.
Answer:A

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NO.10 A Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 6.0 customer site has both Signaling Server Gateway and
SIP Line Gateway up communicating with the CS 1000 Call Server Which statement is true regarding the
configuration similarities between the Signaling Server Gateway and SIP Line Gateway?
A.They each load-balance the registration of IP telephones.
B.They both require separate Zone-based configuration for codec selection.
C.They both use virtual TNs.
D.They each require Application Module Link configuration.
Answer:C

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Exam Code: 920-316
Exam Name: Nortel (SCCS/Express/TAPI/Web Client/Agent)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-16

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NO.1 What Windows sub-components are used in the communication exchange between the
Symposium Agent server running IIS, and the agent desktop running internet Explorer?
A. DCOM and MTS
B. HTTP and DCOM
C. LDAP and MTS
D. ODBC and COM
Answer: B

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NO.2 Symposium Agent and TAPI can co-reside on the same server if the agent count does not
exceed which?
A. 500
B. 600
C. 750
D. 1200
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which two are true for using graphical real-time displays with SECC 3.0?
A. The maximum number of GRTDs is ten
B. GRTD must run on a stand-alone PC
C. SECC 3.0 is backward compatible with all versions of GRTD
D. Each GRTD that runs on a client PC uses one of the Supervisor/Realtime sessiosn of the
SECC
Answer: AD

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NO.4 For Symposuim Agent (SA) to be fully operational in a Meridian1 or DMS environment,
what key component must be in place to monitor the client lines?
A. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines
B. TAPI server must be installed to monitor the client lines but only if used to monitor or control
Multiple Appearance Directory Number (MADN) lines
C. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
D. There are no other requirements outside of Symposium Agent to monitor client lines.
Answer: B

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NO.5 An SECC contact center with 10 Supervisor clients logged in and using the real time
displays would be using how many of the 75 simultaneous real time sessions?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Answer: D

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NO.6 An enterprise wants to add desktop functionality that is flexible and able to respond to the
different needs of callers based on the skill set the calls is routed into. This mid-sized
organization of 100 agents has the expectation to grow to 150 over the next two years, but
will only accept a low-cost solution. What contact center product provides this flexibility?
A. Symposium Agent with the ability to present the correct screen to the agent based on business
rules
B. Symposium Web Center Portal with the ability to present e-mail, chat, an/or collaboration
screens based on customer requirement
C. Symposium Agent Greeting with its ability, based on skill-set, to customize information for
call presentation
D. Symposium TAPI SP with the ability, based on skillset, to route caller information with the
call delivery at the phoneset
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the recommended CPU specification for symposium Agent server in stand-alone
versus co-resident mode with TAPI for 100 agents, assuring Windows NT service pak5?
A. SA will only run on a Windows 2000 platform and so cannot be sized in this scenario
B. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand-alone or co-resident mode on a Pentium II
100 Mhz CPU clock speed
C. A Pentium II 400 Mhz CPU clock speed server can only support 100 Active Agents in a
stand-alone mode Symposium Agent server
D. SA will support 100 active agents in either stand alone or co-resident mode but requires a
Pentium III 600 Mhz CPU clock speed
Answer: B

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NO.8 Estimated wait time, position in queue, message option, massage recording and
announcements are all functionality of what type of port?
A. MIRAN port
B. CallPiLot ports
C. Meridian Mail ports
D. Voice Services Card ports
Answer: C

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NO.9 Select three true statements of comparison of SECC 3.0 to SymposiumCallCenterServer
A. SECC connects to Option 11C Mini
B. Both provide host data exchange (HDX)
C. SECC has an automated scripting agent, SCCS does not
D. SECC is scaled to accommodate about 75% fewer trunks than SCCS
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 Symposium Agent provides enterprises with the ability to add agents in groups and to
purchase licenses incrementally to meet the growth demands of the CTI
screen-pop-enabled agents. What license packages are available to configure?
A. 1, 10, 50, 100, 200, 500
B. 1, 5, 10, 25, 100, 250, 500
C. 1, 5, 10, 50, 100, 200, 300, 500
D. 1, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100, 300, 500
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 920-807
Exam Name: Nortel (Nortel Unified Communications Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-26

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NO.1 Assuming the customer and all of the project team members are located in the same city, which
unified communications enablement application can have the greatest impact on increasing the
gross profit margin for a fixed-fee professional services project with multiple project team
members?
A.Real-time collaboration can provide faster group decision making, streamline project tasks and
deliverables that are shared, and allow the project to be
B.
C.Audio and video conferencing can reduce the travel and expense overhead for fixed-fee professional
services projects when team members must meet for
D.
E.Presence and availability can help increase productivity by identifying which project team members are
reachable to answer immediate questions.
F.IM Chat can provide real-time answers to immediate project questions to enhance productivity for the
project team.
Correct:A

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NO.2 Which critical business application and/or process coupled with unified communication
enablement can provide executive management with real-time financial information/data to make
financially driven business decisions in real-time?
A.customer service (CS)
B.enterprise resource planning (ERP)
C.customer relationship management (CRM)
D.sales force automation (SFA)
Correct:B

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NO.3 When paired with a Communication Server 1000 PBX, the Microsoft Office Communicator client
uses a feature called twinning or dual-forking. What is twinning?
A.a type of conference call
B.two telephones sharing a single extension number
C.telephone set cloning
D.two users sharing an extension number
Correct:B

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NO.4 Given that several VoIP protocols have been used for communications between end-point
devices, which protocol is versatile enough to act as the signaling protocol for mobile, fixed, and
software-based end-point devices?
A.MGCP
B.SIP
C.H.323
D.SGCP
Correct:B

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NO.5 Installation of Office Communications Server (OCS) 2007 requires the extension of the active
directory domain services schema so that creation and configuration of objects in the Active
Directory can take place. Which two active directory objects are necessary for OCS 2007 to
operate? (Choose two.)
A.home telephone number
B.session initiation protocol (SIP) URI
C.telephone extension number
D.fully qualified domain name
Correct:B C

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NO.6 Which unified communications application, when implemented, can successfully solve the time
value of money business challenge for bank and financial institutions attempting to provide
customers with faster loan approvals?
A.self-service websites enabled with IM chat
B.real-time unified messaging with key loan personnel
C.reservation-less audio conferencing
D.real-time collaboration with key loan personnel
Correct:D

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NO.7 In an Office Communications Server (OCS) 2007 Enterprise Edition environment, which solution
increases the availability of OCS 2007 services?
A.deployment of a mediation server
B.deployment of an archiving server
C.deployment of edge servers
D.deployment of a load balancing technology with the OCS 2007
Correct:D

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NO.8 In some cases IP gateways are required in a pure IP PBX environment. Where in the network
would the IP gateway be placed, if one were required?
A.between the IP PBX and the carrier
B.between the IP call server and its associated gateways
C.between the IP PBX and any firewalls
D.an IP gateway is not required in a pure IP PBX solution
Correct:A

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NO.9 A company has an existing traditional TDM PBX and wishes to implement a unified
communications project. At the present time it is more feasible to add a second VoIP-enabled PBX
into the existing configuration to complete the project rather than replace the existing system. To
make this system work as designed, the company must purchase and configure which other piece
of hardware for this solution?
A.Router
B.IP gateway
C.New telephone sets
D.This solution is not possible
Correct:B

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NO.10 A company that is implementing unified communications (UC) has a mobile workforce that
utilizes mobile end point devices such as PDA devices. Which security methodwill be needed to
secure UC dialogue between the PDA devices?
A.Authentication
B.Encryption
C.One time passwords
D.RFID tagging and tracking
Correct:B

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