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Exam Code: HP3-C24
Exam Name: HP (Pay For Print Sales)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 29 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 How is the turnover of the Pay for Print contracts reflected in the quarterly sell-out report from HP?
A.Pay For Print is considered and reflected like normal supplies business.
B.Pay For Print provides specific upfront-discounts, as a result the turnover cannot be reflected
C.Only if the partner is a member of the OPS contract sell-out program, the turnover is reflectedas
normal supplies business.
D.50% of the contract turnover is reflected asnormalsupplies business.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is price protection?
A.protected prices for the supplies during the contract period
B.protected prices for service and supplies during the contract period
C.protected prices for the hardware during the contract period
D.protected prices for the hardware, service and supplies during the contract period
Answer: A

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NO.3 How is HP Pay For Print invoiced?
A.The HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer invoice at the end of the month on
behalf of the partner.
B.The HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer invoice once a quarter on behaff of
the partner
C.At the end of the contract period, the HP Pay For Print service provider issues a customer
invoice.
D.Every quarter the Pay For Print service provider will inform HP to create the customer invoice.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why is HP currently not offering a dedicated pricing tool for the PFP program?
A.Thecalculationswithin the program are so simple that there is no need for a dedicated pricing
tool.
B.The calculations can be done via the general HP contract calculator available at the HP Smart
Portal.
C.The service provider does all contract calculations for the PFP partner.
D.Due to technical reasons the development of the tool was delayed, but HP will release a
dedicated PFP pricing tool in 2011.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How many invoices are sent to the customer during the lifetime of the contract?
A.1
B.12
C.24
D.36
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ST0-91W
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows(STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available"
for policy storage? (Select two.)
A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage units
B. Media Manager and NDMP storage units
C. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabled
D. storage unit groups
E. storage units with available media
Answer: CE

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NO.3 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.
What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.4 A request is made to change volume residences.
Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes? (Select two.)
A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.
B. All volumes must have barcode labels.
C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.
D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.
E. All volumes must have the same media type.
Answer: AE

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NO.5 An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time.
Which option should be used?
A. enable "Compression" in the policy
B. use the FlashBackup policy type
C. enable "Collect True Image Restore" in the policy
D. use the AFS policy type
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: BD

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NO.7 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.8 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs to restore an individual file that was accidentally deleted from a server.
When selecting the backup images for a restore, the folders listed in the left-pane window are greyed out.
When selecting one of these folders, the list of files on the right-pane window is empty even though files
have been backed up from this folder in the past.
What can the administrator do to restore individual files in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface?
A. The administrator needs to login to a system, such as the master server, that has permissions to run
the restore job.
B. The media with the data needs to be placed into the tape library, then the library needs to be
inventoried.
C. The media with the restore data is encrypted and the password needs to be supplied.
D. The restore needs to be changed from a true image backup to a normal backup.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup
LiveUpdate?
A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA
Answer: C

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NO.10 In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)
A. Optimized duplication
B. Duplicate copy to tape
C. Restore to an OpenStorage device
D. Replicated copy
E. Restore to a client
Answer: BE

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NO.11 An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 media
server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.
How should the administrator configure the storage units?
A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit
B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit
C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives
D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group
Answer: B

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NO.12 If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec
NetBackup 7.0 administration console?
A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)
B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)
C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)
D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)
Answer: D

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NO.13 Refer to the exhibit.
In the exhibit, the server_data policy is greyed out and marked with a red "X."
What does this indicate?
A. The policy is using a FlashBackup policy, but the Enterprise client is unlicensed.
B. The policy is using an AdvancedDisk storage unit, but the Flexible Disk option is unlicensed.
C. The policy's "go into effect" date is disabled or set to a date in the future.
D. A backup run from this policy recently failed and the status is in the Activity Monitor.
Answer: C

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NO.14 The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown"
In which directory can these commands be found?
A. install_path\NetBackup\bin
B. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmd
C. install_path\NetBackup\bin\support
D. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodies
Answer: A

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NO.15 An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list that
includes the System_State directive.
What happens when the backup runs?
A. The backup runs successfully.
B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.
C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for
Windows 2003 clients.
D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is
required for Windows 2003 clients.
Answer: A

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NO.16 A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM.
When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs.
What should be done to resolve this error?
A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers
B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit
C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers
D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP
Answer: B

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NO.17 An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Control column
status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.
What does this indicate?
A. The drive is down.
B. The drive is up and under operator control.
C. The drive is up and it is empty.
D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which command provides a list of disk pools required for restoring a client?
A. nbdevquery
B. bpimagelist
C. vmquery
D. bpdiskinfo
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation?
(Select two.)
A. divide number of files by retention period
B. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention period
C. multiply number of backups per day by number of clients
D. multiply number of files by average length of file names
E. divide full backups by retention period
Answer: BD

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NO.20 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-370
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for Windows)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 223 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 Which two types of storage will be used when a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 policy uses "Any Available"
for policy storage? (Select two.)
A. BasicDisk and AdvancedDisk storage units
B. Media Manager and NDMP storage units
C. storage units with the "On Demand Only" option disabled
D. storage unit groups
E. storage units with available media
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 A request is made to change volume residences.
Which two conditions must be met in the volume group that is associated with the changes?(Select two.)
A. All volumes in a volume group must have the same residence.
B. All volumes must have barcode labels.
C. All volumes must be assigned to scratch pool.
D. All volumes must be vaulted before adding volumes to the group.
E. All volumes must have the same media type.
Answer: A,E

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NO.3 The Symantec NetBackup Startup and Shutdown commands on Windows are "bpup" and "bpdown"
In which directory can these commands be found?
A. install_path\NetBackup\bin
B. install_path\NetBackup\bin\admincmd
C. install_path\NetBackup\bin\support
D. install_path\NetBackup\bin\goodies
Answer: A

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NO.4 An administrator needs to back up a file system with millions of files in the shortest amount of time.
Which option should be used?
A. enable "Compression" in the policy
B. use the FlashBackup policy type
C. enable "Collect True Image Restore" in the policy
D. use the AFS policy type
Answer: B

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NO.5 An administrator is checking the status of a standalone drive in the Device Monitor. The Controlcolumn
status is AVR and the Ready column status is No.
What does this indicate?
A. The drive is down.
B. The drive is up and under operator control.
C. The drive is up and it is empty.
D. The drive is up, but the tape in the drive is busy.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which component of Symantec NetBackup 7.0 includes Symantec NetBackup encryption?
A. master server
B. bare metal restore
C. client
D. EMM server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which version of NetBackup client (at a minimum) is required to use Symantec NetBackup LiveUpdate?
A. 6.0 GA
B. 6.0 MP4
C. 6.5 GA
D. 7.0 GA
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator needs to back up a Windows 2003 client and creates a backup selections list
thatincludes the System_State directive.
What happens when the backup runs?
A. The backup runs successfully.
B. The job is partially successful. All files are backed up except the system state.
C. The backup fails. None of the files are backed up because Shadow Copy Components is required for
Windows 2003 clients.
D. The backup fails. None of the requested files are backed up because Shadow Copy
Components is required for Windows 2003 clients.
Answer: A

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NO.9 In a Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment, where does the image database reside?
A. within the EMM database
B. on the media server
C. on the master server
D. within the master server's Sybase database
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator configures two standalone LTO4 tape drives on a Symantec NetBackup 7.0media
server with an existing tape library with an LTO4 drive.
How should the administrator configure the storage units?
A. place each standalone drive in its own storage unit
B. place the two standalone drives in a single new storage unit
C. place the two standalone drives in an existing storage unit with the other LTO4 drives
D. place the two standalone drives in a new storage unit group
Answer: B

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NO.11 If frequency-based cleaning of a drive is desired, which parameter must be set in the Symantec
NetBackup 7.0 administration console?
A. Cleaning Frequency (Between mounts)
B. Cleaning Frequency (In GB)
C. Cleaning Frequency (Between backups)
D. Cleaning Frequency (In hours)
Answer: D

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NO.12 Catalog configuration can be configured to email which file to aid in catalog recovery?
A. BMR file
B. master server config file
C. support script output
D. DR file
Answer: D

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NO.13 A company installed Symantec NetBackup 7.0 on existing Windows 32-bit servers with 2 GB of RAM.
When configuring the Media Server Deduplication Option (MSDP), an error occurs. What should be done
to resolve this error?
A. add additional memory to the Symantec NetBackup servers
B. uninstall Symantec NetBackup and upgrade the servers to Windows 64-bit
C. run nbdevconfig to configure the storage servers
D. cluster the existing Symantec NetBackup servers and reconfigure the MSDP
Answer: B

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NO.14 In which two processes does Symantec NetBackup 7.0 rehydrate deduplicated data? (Select two.)
A. Optimized duplication
B. Duplicate copy to tape
C. Restore to an OpenStorage device
D. Replicated copy
E. Restore to a client
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 Which two components does OpsCenter Analytics replace? (Select two.)
A. backup reporter
B. open storage option
C. operations manager
D. shared storage option
E. Java console
Answer: A,C

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NO.16 Which Symantec NetBackup 7.0 volume pool is created by default?
A. Data
B. Scratch
C. None
D. Catalog
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which two databases are used by Symantec NetBackup 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Media
B. Image
C. Volume
D. EMM
E. Device
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 A collection of all backup data from a client is assembled into a single stream and written to tape or
disk.What is this called?
A. file metadata
B. backup policy
C. catalog .f file
D. backup image
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two calculations are required to size the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 catalog for a new installation?
(Select two.)
A. divide number of files by retention period
B. multiply number of files per backup by number of backups per retention period
C. multiply number of backups per day by number of clients
D. multiply number of files by average length of file names
E. divide full backups by retention period
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 Which command provides a list of disk pools required for restoring a client?
A. nbdevquery
B. bpimagelist
C. vmquery
D. bpdiskinfo
Answer: B

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Exam Code: ASC-091
Exam Name: Symantec (ASC Data Protection 2010)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 A restore is initiated for a client in which part of the admin console?
A.Backup, Archive, and Restore
B.Activity Monitor
C.Backup Policy Administration
D.Device Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.2 What allows administrators to freeze or unfreeze media?
A.Device Monitor > Media
B.Storage Unit Properties
C.Media and Device Management > Media
D.Media and Device Management > Tape
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer is experiencing long backup times.An administrator is given the task of evaluating the data
transfer path.What are the components that make up the data transfer path?
A.the NetBackup client, the client memory, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
B.the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
C.the NetBackup client, the network, the NetBackup server, and the storage device
D.the NetBackup server, the network, the network switch, and the storage device
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which one of the following is a tape drive cleaning method within NetBackup
A.frequency-based cleaning
B.on-demand cleaning with drive-alert
C.manual cleaning with a tape cleaning solution
D.scheduled cleaning
Answer: A

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NO.5 NetBackup (NBU) master, media, and client servers may be run in mixed environments.Windows 2000
(Win2K) is not supported in NBU 7.0.How can Windows 2000 Servers be protected in a supported
configuration?
A.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
B.Win2K with a 7.x client may be backed up with an NBU 6.5.4 media server.
C.Win2K with a 5.x client may be backed up with an NBU 7.0 media server.
D.Win2K with a 6.x client may be backed up with an NBU 5.x media server.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The maximum data buffer size is calculated as a multiple of operating system (OS) pages (1 page =
4KB).The maximum OS pages is 256 (0 to 255).What is the maximum size limit for data buffers on
Windows?
A.64KB
B.1024KB
C.256KB
D.512KB
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which NetBackup command line utility is used to verify communication between NetBackup and a
robotic tape library?
A.vmoprcmd
B.robtest
C.sgscan
D.libtest
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two should be verified prior to installing NetBackup? (Select two.)
A.mount all CIFS file systems to the server
B.apply the most current operating system patches and updates to the server
C.remove all storage devices from the server
D.remove any other vendor's backup software currently configured on the system
E.un-mount all the NFS file systems from the server
Answer: B, D

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NO.9 An administrator receives a call from a customer stating that all the backup jobs that were scheduled to
run the previous night did not run.Which NetBackup process should the administrator look into to
troubleshoot the problem?
A.nbpem
B.nbemm
C.bpdbjobs
D.bpdbm
Answer: A

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NO.10 Where can the NetBackup release updates be found?
A.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/updates/overview.jsp?pid=15143
B.http://www.symantec.com/business/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
C.http://www.symantec.com/business/software/overview.jsp?pid=15143
D.http://www.symantec.com/netbackup/support/overview.jsp?pid=15143
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which command is most commonly used to troubleshoot and test the connectivity between a
master/media server and a client?
A.bpconnect
B.bpclient
C.bpclntcmd
D.bpdbm
Answer: C

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NO.12 An administrator has a NetBackup environment with four LTO3 tape drives and 20 clients.The
master/media server is on a 1 Gb connection, but the clients only have 100 Mb connections.Which two
settings can be used to improve the backup performance? (Select two.)
A.enable multistreaming for all policies and increase the aximum jobs per client to a bigger value
B.enable hardware compression on the tape drives
C.enable multiplexing at the STU level and set it to a higher value
D.enable Client Encryption Option on the network clients
E.exclude large clients from daily backups
Answer: A, C

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NO.13 What is the command syntax to immediately expire images on a particular tape (tapeid)?
A.bpexpdate -expire 1 -id <tapeid>
B.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 0
C.bpexpdate -id <tapeid> -d 0
D.bpexpdate -m <tapeid> -d 1
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which NetBackup process transfers the full data stream from the client to the media server when using
deduplication?
A.bpdm
B.bptm
C.bpbkar
D.bpdp
Answer: C

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NO.15 How do administrators disable the TapeAlert feature in UNIX for NetBackup?
A.check the disable_tape_alert box in the device manager
B.create a touch file at /usr/openv/volmgr/database/NO_TAPEALERT
C.create a touch file at /usr/openv/netbackup/NO_TAPEALERT
D.add an entry (disable_tapealert) in the bp.conf
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the catalog disaster recovery file that is created during the online catalog backup intended for?
A.record keeping purposes
B.identification of media required for a recovery
C.identification of the clients that were backed up over a specified time period
D.automation of the process of NetBackup recovery
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the originator ID for nbpem process, which is used in unified logging?
A.115
B.116
C.117
D.118
Answer: B

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NO.18 An administrator is configuring multi-streaming for a few backup policies.The administrator is backing
up four volumes configured on two physical disks from a NetBackup client.How many backup streams
should be configured for best backup performance?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.19 Where is the best location to find binary sizes to help determine if an administrator's NetBackup
environment has sufficient disk space allocated for an upgrade to safely and efficiently back up and
restore all of their data?
A.Symantec NetBackup Administrators Guide
B.Symantec NetBackup Troubleshooting Guide
C.Symantec NetBackup Upgrade Release Notes
D.Symantec NetBackup Operations Guide
Answer: C

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NO.20 How is a backup executed manually from the NetBackup Admin Console?
A.right-click on the client in the Host Properties screen and click on Backup
B.set the schedule to execute at 00:00:00 in the backup policy
C.right-click on the client's backup policy and select "manual backup" then select the client name
D.right-click on any line in the Activity Monitor and select "manual backup", then enter the client name
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-097
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 An administrator needs to determine whether a sending MTA is being throttled by Symantec Brightmail
Gateway 9.0. Where is this information located?
A. Reputation Summary report
B. IP reputation lookup table
C. SMTP server logs
D. message audit logs
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which feature, when enabled through the directory data sources, allows third party MTAs the ability to
relay through Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 and protects it against becoming an open relay?
A. MTA verification
B. address validation
C. TLS certificate authentication
D. SMTP authentication
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is required before attempting installation of the Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 appliance?
A. console access to the appliance
B. hostname for default gateway
C. hostname, port, username, and password for proxy
D. two IP addresses for each appliance
Answer: A

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NO.4 During which phase of outbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 determine
whether the number of recipients exceeds the good number of recipients per message?
A. message routing
B. message delivery
C. outbound SMTP session
D. outbound SMTP connection
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature improves responsiveness to new spam threats and
increases overall antispam effectiveness?
A. rapid release definitions
B. Fastpass
C. microupdates
D. real time updates
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the maximum number of rows a report can have?
A. 100 rows
B. 1,000 rows
C. 10,000 rows
D. 100,000 rows
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two actions must be taken to allow end-users to create personal Good and Bad Senders lists.?
(Select two.)
A. add "Hold message in Spam Quarantine" action to Local Bad Senders domains
B. check the option "Enable end-user settings for this policy group"
C. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Recipient Validation functions
D. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Routing functions
E. configure an LDAP source with Authentication and Address Resolution functions
Answer: B, E

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NO.8 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A. accept and deliver messages normally
B. pause message scanning and delivery
C. do not accept incoming messages
D. flush incoming messages
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is the default report data retention period?
A. 7 days
B. 14 days
C. 30 days
D. 60 days
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which additional Email Reports Data collection must be enabled to track Top Probe Accounts via
reports?
A. Invalid Senders
B. Sender HELO domains
C. Sender IP connections
D. Invalid Recipients
Answer: D

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NO.11 During which phase of inbound message flow does Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 accept, reject, or
defer messages on the basis of the message envelope?
A. SMTP delivery
B. message filtering
C. SMTP session
D. message routing
Answer: C

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NO.12 Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 includes a new policy-based encryption feature. How is this new
feature licensed?
A. The license is included with Symantec Protection Suite.
B. The license is included with Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0.
C. The license is included with Symantec Content Encryption.
D. The license is included with Symantec Endpoint Encryption.
Answer: C

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NO.13 .In which two situations are multiple group policies useful? (Select two.)
A. when the entire organization wants to delete spam
B. when only the Human Resources department wants to receive spam
C. when only the Engineering department wants to keep message logs
D. when only the Legal department should be allowed to send archive files
E. when all of the departments want to scan outbound messages
Answer: B, D

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NO.14 Which TCP port is used for communication between the Control Center and the scanner(s)?
A. 41001
B. 41002
C. 41004
D. 41008
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is the new encryption action introduced in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0?
A. deliver messages with S/MIME encryption
B. deliver messages with content encryption
C. deliver messages with envelope encryption
D. deliver messages with PGP encryption
Answer: B

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NO.16 An organization is receiving spam because of small targeted attacks from unknown senders. Which
Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature should help slow down these types of attacks?
A. dictionary attack prevention
B. directory harvest attack prevention
C. global reputation analysis
D. connection classification
Answer: D

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NO.17 A company uses multiple control centers. What must be done to ensure legitimate NDRs are recognized
by Bounce Attack Prevention across all scanners?
A. configure the same seed value on each control center
B. configure different seed values on each control center
C. configure the same seed value on each scanner
D. configure different seed values on each scanner
Answer: A

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NO.18 What are the Symantec Global Bad and Good Sender lists based on?
A. reputation data from Symantec Global Services
B. reputation data from a global Symantec LiveUpdate server
C. reputation data from the Symantec Global Intelligence Network
D. global reputation data from Symantec Protection Center
Answer: C

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NO.19 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A. It provides message management services.
B. It downloads spam definitions.
C. It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D. It downloads virus definitions.
E. It runs filters.
Answer: A, C

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NO.20 Which Symantec Brightmail Gateway 9.0 feature will change the original domain of an internal user
relaying mail outside of an organization?
A. address masquerading
B. address aliasing
C. domain mapping
D. content filtering
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 250-511
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec(TM) Data Loss Prevention 11)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 176 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 A divisional executive requests a report of all incidents generated by a particular region, summarized
by department. What must be populated to generate this report?
A. remediation attributes
B. sender correlations
C. status groups
D. custom attributes
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two policy management actions can result in a reduced number of incidents for a given traffic
flow? (Select two.)
A. adding additional component matching to the rule
B. adding data owner exceptions
C. deploying to additional detection servers
D. increasing condition match count
E. adding additional severities
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 A company needs to scan all of its file shares on a weekly basis to make sure sensitive data is being
stored correctly. The total volume of data on the file servers is greater than 1 TB. Which approach will
allow the company to quickly scan all of this data on a weekly basis?
A. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to add date filters and
exclude any files created or modified before the initial scan was run
B. run an initial complete scan of all the file shares, then modify the scan target to an incremental scan
type
C. create a separate scan target for each file share and exclude files accessed before the start of each
scan
D. run an initial complete scan of all file shares, create a summary report of all incidents created by the
scan, then run weekly scans and compare incidents from weekly scans to incidents from the complete
scan
Answer: B

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NO.4 How can an administrator validate that once a policy is updated and saved it has been enabled on a
specific detection server?
A. check the status of the policy on the policy list page
B. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Alerts
C. check the policy and validate the date and time it was last updated
D. check to see whether the policy was loaded under System > Servers > Events
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which DLP Agent task is unique to the Symantec Management Platform and is unavailable through
the Enforce console?
A. Change Endpoint server
B. Restart agent
C. Pull agent logs
D. Set log level
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which two functions of the communications architecture ensure that the system will automatically
recover if a network connectivity failure occurs between the detection servers and the Enforce Server?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle database backup
B. detection server autonomous monitoring
C. Enforce Server offline alert notification
D. detection server incident queuing
E. detection server alert archiving
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 An administrator is running a Discover Scanner target scan and the scanner is unable to communicate
back to the Discover Server. Where will the files be stored?
A. Discover Server incoming folder
B. scanner's outgoing folder
C. scanner's incoming folder
D. Enforce incident persister
Answer: B

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NO.8 After installing several new DLP Agents, the Data Loss Prevention administrator discovers that none of
the endpoint agents are appearing on the Agent Overview page. After refreshing the page several times,
and determining that the equipment is powered on and connected to the network, the Agent Overview
page still fails to display the new agents. What is a possible cause for this issue?
A. The DLP Agents need to be added manually through the Symantec Management Platform.
B. The DLP Agents were installed with the incorrect Endpoint server IP address.
C. The assigned Endpoint server needs to be recycled in order to detect the new DLP Agents.
D. The Endpoint Location is set to "Manually" instead of "Automatically" in the Enforce user interface.
Answer: B

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NO.9 To manually troubleshoot DLP Agent issues, the database and log viewer tools must be executed in
which location?
A. in the same location as the dcs.ead file location
B. in the same location as the cg.ead file location
C. in the same location as the ks.ead file location
D. in the same location as the is.ead file location
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which product provides support for the Citrix XenApp virtualization platform?
A. Endpoint Prevent
B. Network Discover
C. Network Protect
D. Network Prevent
Answer: A

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NO.11 A user is unable to log in as sysadmin. The Data Loss Prevention system is configured to use Active
Directory authentication. The user is a member of two roles, sysadmin and remediator. How should the
user log in to the user interface in the sysadmin role?
A. sysadmin\username@domain
B. sysadmin\username
C. domain\username
D. sysadmin\username\domain
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which two remediation actions are available for Network Protect? (Select two.)
A. Copy
B. Move
C. Block
D. Rename
E. Quarantine
Answer: A,E

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NO.13 Where should the Network Discover detection server be placed in a corporate network architecture?
A. inside the DMZ
B. on the same virtual LAN as the proxy server
C. inside the corporate network
D. on the same switch as the Oracle database server
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is a feature of keyword proximity matching?
A. It will match on whole keywords only.
B. It has a maximum distance between keywords of 99.
C. It only matches on message body.
D. It evaluates each keyword pair independently.
Answer: D

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NO.15 The database is full and the Incident Persister is unable to process incidents. Which two file types
could be present in Vontu/protect/incidents? (Select two.)
A. .idx
B. .edc
C. .idc
D. .inc
E. .bad
Answer: C,E

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NO.16 A role is configured for XML export and a user executes the export XML incident action. What must be
done before history information is included in the export?
A. A remediator must take an action on the incident.
B. History must be enabled as a tab or panel in the incident snapshot layout.
C. Incident history must be enabled in the user's role.
D. The manager.properties must be configured for XML export.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Which Network Discover option is used to determine whether confidential data exists without having to
scan the entire target?
A. Byte Throttling
B. File Throttling
C. Match Thresholds
D. Inventory Mode Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.18 A Data Loss Prevention administrator notices that several errors occurred during a Network Discover
scan. Which report can the administrator use to determine exactly which errors occurred and when?
A. Discover Incident report sorted by target name and scan
B. Full Activity report for that particular scan
C. Server Event report from Server Overview
D. Full Statistics report for that particular scan
Answer: B

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NO.19 What are two benefits of the Symantec Data Loss Prevention 11 security architecture? (Select two.)
A. Communication is initiated by the detection servers inside the firewall.
B. SSL communication is used for user access to the Enforce Platform.
C. Endpoint Agent to Endpoint Server communication uses the Triple Data Encryption Standard (Triple
DES).
D. Confidential information captured by system components is stored using Advanced Encryption
Standards (AES) symmetric keys.
E. All indexed data uploaded into the Enforce Platform is protected with a two-way hash.
Answer: B,D

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NO.20 What must a policy manager do when working with Exact Data Matching (EDM) indexes?
A. re-index large data sources on a daily or weekly basis
B. index the original data source on the detection server
C. deploy the index only to specific detection servers
D. create a new data profile if data source schema changes
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-153
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec PGP Universal Server 3.2 Technical Assessment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-29

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NO.1 How did you add Internal Users to the PGP Universal Server?
A.Receiving email
B.Installing the server
C.Sending email
D.All of the above
Answer:C

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NO.2 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do? A user who is not
a PGP NetShare user but is a PGP Desktop user attempts to access a PGP NetShare encrypted folder...
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:B

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NO.3 How do PGP Universal Server clusters resolve conflicts where a user account is being changed on two
or more servers at the same time?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:D

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NO.4 How could I verify user keys for a partner using SMIME?
A.By placing the partner's CA in the list of Trusted Keys
B.By adding an Organization Certificate to my PGP Universal Server
C.By splitting my ADK
D.PGP Universal Server automatically trusts all non-PGP SMIME servers
Answer:A

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NO.5 How do the encrypt and sign buttons interact with policy?
A.They bypass it
B.They do not bypass it, they use the Standalone chain
C.They only work when the server is online and the Outbound policy rule has been enabled
D.None of the above are true
Answer:D

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8.How do you create an ADK?
A.It is automatically created and added to the server upon installation
B.You purchase one from PGP Corporation
C.From the Organization Keys tab
D.From PGP Desktop
Answer:D

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9.How does a cluster know if a server needs to be updated?
A.Highwatermark
B.Web Messenger replication
C.Smart topology
D.Timestamps
Answer:A

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10.How does the “Prefer Notes native encoding over PGP encoding” feature work?
A.External emails are PGP encrypted but internal ones are Notes encrypted
B.Internal emails are PGP encrypted but external ones are Notes encrypted
C.All emails are Notes encrypted
D.The user is prompted to choose their encryption type
Answer:A

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11.How does Web Messenger replication work?
A.There is no replication
B.Messages can be replicated to all servers or a number of servers or not replicated
C.Messages are stored on all servers or not replicated
D.Messages can only be replicated to a number of servers or not replicated
E.Messages are always replicated on all servers unless it is a DMZ server
Answer: B

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12.How is the private key of the ADK protected?
A.The private key should be split into several shares and given to designated users.
B.The ADK keypair is stored on the server
C.The private key is protected by the Ignition Key
D.The ADK doesn't have a private key
Answer:A

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13.How many backups are kept by default?
A.7
B.30
C.5
D.5, not configurable
Answer:C

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14.If a user belongs to 3 different groups, which one will give this user policy?
A.The first one created on the server if there is no order specified
B.The Excluded group if he belongs to it
C.Wherever LDAP puts them first
D.The Everyone group
Answer:B

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15.If Alice has forgotten the passphrase for her encrypted boot volume, what can her administrator do?
A.Use the WDE-ADMIN group access to authenticate at BootGuard and change the passphrase
B.Check the box for "Automatically decrypt boot disk upon power on" in Consumer Policy
C.Use the Account lockout mechanism to reset her passphrase
D.Use the Whole Disk Recovery Token
E.Reset her passphrase in PGP Universal Server
Answer: D

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16.A user has never dealt with another employee but is able to send them secure email because they
have a PGP Universal Server.This is possible because of:
A.This is an example of the SMIME Web of Trust
B.Manual verification
C.This is not possible with PGP products
D.A trust relationship
Answer:D

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18.If you did not specify network settings during the installation process, which of the following IP
addresses would initially be assigned to your PGP Universal Server?
A.172.16.10.100/24
B.192.168.1.100/24
C.10.1.1.100/24
D.none of the above
Answer:B

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19.If you had to manually type in your PGP Universal Server address to administer it, what would it be?
A.http://Key.domain:443
B.https://Key.domain:9000
C.https://Keys.domain
D.https://Keys.domain:9000
Answer:D

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20.If you move an encrypted file out of a PGP NetShare protected folder and onto your Windows desktop
what happens?
A.The file is decrypted
B.The file remains encrypted
C.The file remains encrypted only if it is protected by the blacklist
D.If advanced user mode is enabled it stays encrypted
E.It is decrypted if the file is data created by an application on the blacklist
Answer: B

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NO.6 Given the following details, which of the answers best describes what a user can do?A user who is not a
PGP Desktop user accesses a PGP NetShare encrypted folder.
A.The data can be decrypted
B.The user cannot access the share at all
C.The user can read but cannot move, copy or delete the files
D.The NTFS permissions determine what the user can do with the files, but the data remains encrypted
Answer:D

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